Exam code: 7402
1/1070Still learning
Know0
What is a stem cell?
A cell that can divide by mitosis an unlimited number of times, with each new cell able to remain a stem cell or differentiate into a specialised cell.

Join for free to unlock a full flashcard set, track what you know,
and turn revision into real progress.
What is potency?
The ability of stem cells to differentiate into more specialised cell types.
Define a totipotent cell.
A stem cell that can divide and produce any body cell, as well as extra-embryonic cells (e.g. the placenta).
Was this flashcard helpful?
What is a stem cell?
A cell that can divide by mitosis an unlimited number of times, with each new cell able to remain a stem cell or differentiate into a specialised cell.
What is potency?
The ability of stem cells to differentiate into more specialised cell types.
Define a totipotent cell.
A stem cell that can divide and produce any body cell, as well as extra-embryonic cells (e.g. the placenta).
What are the three types of potency?
Totipotency
Pluripotency
Multipotency
Why does a totipotent cell become specialised during development?
During development, totipotent cells begin to translate only part of their DNA.
This results in cell specialisation, and the cells are then no longer totipotent.
True or False?
The zygote and embryonic cells up to the 16-cell (morula) stage are totipotent.
True.
The zygote and human embryonic cells up to the 16-cell morula stage are totipotent.
True or False?
Totipotent cells are present in the later stages of development.
False.
There are no totipotent cells in later development; cells lose the ability to differentiate into any cell type.
For how long do totipotent cells exist in mammals?
They exist for a limited time in early mammalian embryos, as well as in extra-embryonic cells (the placenta).
Totipotent cells can divide and produce body cell, and this type of stem cell is also known as an stem cell.
Totipotent cells can divide and produce any body cell, and this type of stem cell is also known as an embryonic stem cell.
During development, totipotent cells begin to only part of their DNA, which results in cell .
During development, totipotent cells begin to translate only part of their DNA, which results in cell specialisation.
Define a pluripotent stem cell.
An embryonic stem cell that can differentiate into any cell type found in an embryo, but not into extra-embryonic cells (e.g. the placenta).
Define a multipotent stem cell.
A stem cell that can differentiate into a limited range of cell types, all within a specific tissue or organ system.
Define a unipotent cell.
An adult cell that can differentiate into only one specific cell type (its own lineage), but can still self-renew.
What are induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells?
A type of artificially created stem cell produced from adult somatic cells using appropriate protein transcription factors.
How are iPS cells produced from adult somatic cells?
Transcription factors cause specific genes to be expressed.
This genetically reprograms the cell to behave like an embryonic stem cell, giving self-renewal and pluripotency.
Give an example of a unipotent cell in the body.
Cardiomyocytes (heart muscle cells), which only form more cardiomyocytes to maintain the contraction of the heart.
True or False?
Multipotent stem cells can be found throughout the body in adults, such as in the bone marrow.
True.
Multipotent stem cells are found throughout the body, e.g. in bone marrow, skin, gut, heart and brain.
True or False?
Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into extra-embryonic cells such as the placenta.
False.
Pluripotent cells can form any embryonic cell type but not extra-embryonic cells like the placenta.
Why are iPS cells advantageous over embryonic stem cells?
They mimic embryonic stem cells but without the associated ethical concerns.
Multipotent cells are more specialised than pluripotent cells but still retain the ability to .
Multipotent cells are more specialised than pluripotent cells but still retain the ability to self-renew.
Give two advantages of using embryonic stem cells.
They are very versatile and can become any tissue type.
They offer long-term potential for curative treatments.
Give two disadvantages of using embryonic stem cells.
Ethical concerns: their use involves the destruction of embryos.
Immune rejection risk and the possibility of tumour formation if division is uncontrolled.
Give one use of embryonic stem cells in treating disease.
Replacing lost dopamine-producing neurons in Parkinson's disease (or generating insulin-producing beta cells in Type 1 diabetes).
Where are adult (multipotent) stem cells found, and what do they produce?
Bone marrow produces different types of blood cells.
Brain produces different types of neural and glial cells.
Give one advantage of using adult stem cells over embryonic stem cells.
No embryo destruction as they are harvested from consenting adults, so there are fewer ethical issues.
Give one disadvantage of using adult stem cells.
They have limited differentiation potential (or are harder to isolate, or may have accumulated mutations).
How could iPS cells be used besides treating disease?
Disease modelling using patient-specific cells (e.g. Alzheimer's).
Drug testing, reducing the need for animal models.
True or False?
iPS cells made from a patient's own cells carry no risk of immune rejection.
True.
Because they are made from the patient's own cells, there is no risk of immune rejection.
True or False?
Converting adult somatic cells into iPS cells is a highly efficient, low-cost process.
False.
It is very inefficient and has high costs, as only a small fraction of treated cells become pluripotent.
Adult stem cells used in bone marrow transplants need to be a close in blood type and other body to reduce rejection.
Adult stem cells used in bone marrow transplants need to be a close match in blood type and other body antigens to reduce rejection.
What is an explant?
A small piece of a plant that is cut off and then grown into a new clone of the original plant.
Why is cauliflower used to produce tissue cultures?
It is composed mostly of actively dividing cells and can withstand being handled.
Why can an entire plant be grown from a single cauliflower cell?
Many plant cells are totipotent, unlike animal cells, so any cell can produce all the cell types of a whole plant.
Why must the explant be sterilised before culturing?
To ensure a sterile environment so that no fungi contaminate the experiment, which would cause fungal growth instead of explant growth.
Describe how an explant is sterilised in this practical.
Soak the explant in sterilising solution for 15 minutes.
Swirl it around in the solution every couple of minutes.
What does the agar growth medium provide for the explant?
All the nutrients the plant needs for growth, plus a sterilant to prevent contamination.
What does a successful cauliflower explant culture demonstrate?
That the explant cells can produce all the different cell types of a whole cauliflower, showing they are totipotent.
True or False?
The cut explant is left on a sunny windowsill for three weeks to grow.
True.
The container is left on a sunny windowsill for three weeks to grow a cauliflower clone.
A small piece of plant that is cut off is called an , which can be grown into a of the original plant.
A small piece of plant that is cut off is called an explant, which can be grown into a clone of the original plant.
What is a transcription factor?
A protein that helps control transcription by either activating or repressing the transcription of a particular gene.
What is a promoter?
A section of DNA upstream of the coding region that is the binding site for proteins controlling the expression of the gene.
How does a transcription factor stimulate gene expression?
It binds to the promoter region at the start of a gene.
This assists RNA polymerase binding, increasing the rate of transcription.
How can a transcription factor inhibit gene expression?
By binding to the promoter and preventing RNA polymerase from binding, which decreases transcription.
Why can oestrogen act as a transcription factor?
It is a small, hydrophobic, lipid-based steroid hormone that can diffuse through the cell membrane and enter the nucleus via nuclear pores.
Describe the oestrogen stimulation pathway (in outline).
Oestrogen diffuses through the cell membrane and into the nucleus.
It binds an ERα receptor, causing a conformational change so the receptor detaches from its protein complex.
The receptor binds a cofactor and the promoter, stimulating RNA polymerase binding and transcription.
True or False?
Transcription factors enter the nucleus from the cytoplasm through nuclear pores.
True.
Transcription factors move from the cytoplasm into the nucleus through nuclear pores.
True or False?
Oestrogen controls only a single gene in the body.
False.
Up to 100 different genes are controlled by oestrogen.
A transcription factor binds to the region at the start of a gene, which can either allow or prevent of the gene.
A transcription factor binds to the promoter region at the start of a gene, which can either allow or prevent transcription of the gene.
Oestrogen is a hormone that binds to an receptor within the nucleus.
Oestrogen is a steroid hormone that binds to an oestrogen (ERα) receptor within the nucleus.
What is meant by gene expression?
The process by which genetic information is used to synthesise proteins or functional RNA molecules.
What is a phenotype?
The observable characteristics of an organism, resulting from the interaction between its genotype and the environment.
What generally indicates increased gene expression in data?
Higher mRNA or protein levels usually indicate increased gene expression.
Why is RNA analysis useful for studying gene expression?
When a cell expresses a gene, RNA is produced by transcription.
Matching the RNA present to specific genes reveals which genes are being expressed in that cell.
How can twin studies help evaluate genetic vs environmental influence?
Monozygotic twins share identical genotypes, so any phenotypic differences between them suggest an environmental influence.
What should be considered when evaluating data on gene expression?
The strength and direction of correlations.
Whether results show causation or only association.
Whether confounding variables have been controlled.
How can RNA analysis help in cancer?
Genes responsible for tumour formation can be detected by analysing which genes are over-expressed in a cancer cell, helping identify drugs that block them.
True or False?
Both genetic and environmental factors often contribute to phenotype in interacting ways.
True.
Genetic and environmental influences often contribute to phenotype in complex, interacting ways.
mRNA concentrations can be measured using techniques such as , while protein levels can be detected using methods like .
mRNA concentrations can be measured using techniques such as RT-PCR, while protein levels can be detected using methods like ELISA.
Define epigenetics.
Changes in gene function without changes to the base sequence of DNA.
What is the epigenome?
All of the chemical modifications to histone proteins and DNA (except base changes) in an organism.
What two chemical modifications make up the epigenome?
Addition of acetyl groups to histone proteins.
Addition of methyl groups to DNA.
What causes changes to the epigenome?
Changes in the environment, such as smoking, stress, exercise and diet.
Internal signalling from the body's cells.
How does acetylation of histones affect gene expression?
Acetyl groups added to lysine remove positive charges, so DNA wraps less tightly.
RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind more easily, so gene expression is switched on.
How does methylation of DNA affect gene expression?
Methyl groups are added to cytosine bases.
This suppresses transcription, as methylated bases attract proteins that bind and inhibit transcription.
Why are genes switched off when DNA is wound more tightly?
The gene and promoter regions are hidden from transcription factors and RNA polymerase, so transcription cannot occur.
True or False?
The removal of acetyl groups (deacetylation) inhibits transcription.
True.
Deacetylation makes DNA wrap more tightly around histones, which inhibits transcription.
True or False?
Epigenetic changes alter the base sequence of the DNA.
False.
Epigenetics involves changes in gene function without changing the DNA base sequence.
The addition of groups to DNA suppresses transcription, whereas the addition of groups to histones switches gene expression on.
The addition of methyl groups to DNA suppresses transcription, whereas the addition of acetyl groups to histones switches gene expression on.
What is the aim of epigenetic therapies?
To reverse epigenetic changes in order to restore normal gene expression.
Why are epigenetic changes promising targets for treatment?
Unlike mutations, epigenetic changes are reversible.
How do epigenetic changes contribute to cancer?
Changes in DNA methylation and histone acetylation cause tumour suppressor genes to be silenced and oncogenes to be activated, deregulating the cell cycle.
How could removing methyl groups from tumour suppressor genes help treat cancer?
It enables the genes to be expressed again.
The proteins produced can regulate the cell cycle and stop tumours forming.
How does removing acetyl groups from histones on oncogenes help treat cancer?
The DNA wraps more tightly, silencing the oncogenes.
Faulty cells can then undergo apoptosis rather than replicating.
What do DNA demethylating agents do?
They inhibit enzymes (DNA methyltransferases) that add methyl groups, aiming to reactivate silenced tumour suppressor genes.
What do histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors do?
They prevent histone deacetylation, keeping chromatin open and increasing expression of beneficial genes (e.g. those inducing apoptosis).
True or False?
Epigenetic therapies are being explored for neurological diseases such as Alzheimer's.
True.
Epigenetic therapies are explored for neurological diseases (e.g. Alzheimer's), autoimmune and metabolic conditions.
Because epigenetic changes are , drugs can reverse them by removing and methyl tags to restore normal gene expression.
Because epigenetic changes are reversible, drugs can reverse them by removing acetyl and methyl tags to restore normal gene expression.
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
A form of post-transcriptional gene silencing, occurring in the cytoplasm, that is sequence-specific.
What is small interfering RNA (siRNA)?
Small, double-stranded RNA molecules that bind to complementary mRNA from target genes, leading to its breakdown.
How does siRNA prevent a gene being expressed?
siRNA binds to the target mRNA by complementary base pairing.
An associated protein complex cuts the mRNA into fragments, so it cannot be translated.
Describe how siRNA is formed in the RNAi pathway.
Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) is produced by RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.
dsRNA is hydrolysed into fragments about 23 nucleotides long, called siRNAs.
Why must the two strands of siRNA be separated?
Separating the strands (using ATP) exposes the nucleotide bases so they can pair with bases on an mRNA molecule.
What happens to the mRNA fragments after siRNA-directed cutting?
The fragments are broken down into RNA nucleotides by enzymes, so no functional protein is produced.
How can siRNA be used in cancer treatment?
siRNAs can target oncogenes that have been over-expressed.
This reduces the proteins that cause or maintain cancerous growth.
True or False?
RNA interference occurs in the nucleus of the cell.
False.
RNA interference is a post-transcriptional process that occurs in the cytoplasm.
True or False?
siRNA binds to its target mRNA through complementary base pairing.
True.
siRNA binds the target mRNA via complementary base pairing, localising it to the protein complex for hydrolysis.
Small interfering RNAs bind to through complementary base pairing, causing it to be cut up so it cannot be .
Small interfering RNAs bind to mRNA through complementary base pairing, causing it to be cut up so it cannot be translated.
What is a tumour?
A group of abnormal cells that forms a lump or growth, which can start in any cell of the body.
How do malignant tumours cause cancer?
They grow rapidly, then invade and destroy surrounding tissues.
What is metastasis?
When cells break off a malignant tumour and spread to other parts of the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
Give three key features of a benign tumour.
Grows slowly.
Does not invade other tissues or metastasise.
Does not usually grow back when removed.
How can all tumours cause harm to the body?
By damaging the organ they are in, causing blockages or obstructions, or damaging other organs by exerting pressure.
Why do malignant tumours secrete chemicals that form blood vessels?
To supply the tumour with nutrients, growth factors and oxygen.
Name two carcinogens that can initiate malignant tumours.
UV or X-ray exposure and tobacco from cigarettes (also asbestos or processed meat).
True or False?
A benign tumour can spread to other parts of the body by metastasis.
False.
Benign tumours do not metastasise or invade other tissues, unlike malignant tumours.
True or False?
When removed by surgery, malignant tumours can still grow back.
True.
Malignant tumours can still grow back after surgical removal.
Malignant tumours are , whereas benign tumours are non-cancerous and grow .
Malignant tumours are cancerous, whereas benign tumours are non-cancerous and grow slowly.
How does cancer arise?
From uncontrolled mitosis due to mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle, forming a tumour.
What is a proto-oncogene?
A normal gene that codes for proteins which stimulate cell growth and differentiation.
How is a proto-oncogene converted into an oncogene?
A mutation (often caused by a carcinogen) causes the constant activation of proteins that stimulate cell growth and division, speeding up the cell cycle.
What is the normal role of tumour suppressor genes?
They encode proteins that repair DNA, slow the cell cycle at checkpoints, and signal apoptosis if damage is irreparable.
How can inactivation of a tumour suppressor gene lead to a tumour?
Mutation or epigenetic silencing stops the protein being made.
The brake on cell division is removed, so tumour formation can occur.
How does increased methylation of a tumour suppressor gene cause a tumour?
Methylation silences the gene, as transcription factors cannot bind.
Tumour suppressor proteins are not made, so tumour formation occurs.
How can reduced methylation of a proto-oncogene cause cancer?
The gene becomes accessible, transcription factors bind and protein synthesis is activated.
The gene behaves like an oncogene, even without a mutation.
How does the drug tamoxifen inhibit oestrogen-dependent breast tumours?
It is a competitive inhibitor that binds the ERα receptor.
This prevents gene activation, as the receptor cannot bind the promoter, inhibiting tumour growth.
True or False?
BRCA-1 is a tumour suppressor gene mainly expressed in breast tissue.
True.
BRCA-1 is a tumour suppressor gene mainly expressed in breast tissue; its protein repairs DNA or triggers apoptosis.
A mutated proto-oncogene becomes an , which permanently stimulates cell division, while silencing of a gene removes the brake on division.
A mutated proto-oncogene becomes an oncogene, which permanently stimulates cell division, while silencing of a tumour suppressor gene removes the brake on division.
By signing up you agree to our Terms and Privacy Policy