Exam code: 7136
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Define market structure.
A market structure describes the characteristics of the market in which a firm or industry operates, such as the number of firms and the barriers to entry.

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Name three characteristics used to distinguish market structures.
Market structures differ by the number and size of firms, whether the product is homogeneous or differentiated, and the barriers to entry and exit.
True or False?
A monopoly is a market structure with a single supplier of a particular product.
True.
A monopoly exists where one firm is the sole supplier and can influence market supply and price.
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Define market structure.
A market structure describes the characteristics of the market in which a firm or industry operates, such as the number of firms and the barriers to entry.
Name three characteristics used to distinguish market structures.
Market structures differ by the number and size of firms, whether the product is homogeneous or differentiated, and the barriers to entry and exit.
True or False?
A monopoly is a market structure with a single supplier of a particular product.
True.
A monopoly exists where one firm is the sole supplier and can influence market supply and price.
In monopolistic competition there are many firms offering a similar product but with some product .
In monopolistic competition there are many firms offering a similar product but with some product differentiation.
Define oligopoly.
An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few large firms dominate the industry, each holding significant market power.
Define market power.
Market power is a firm's ability to influence and control conditions in a market, notably its price and output.
How does being closer to a monopoly affect a firm's concentration ratio?
The closer a firm is to being a monopoly, the higher its concentration ratio, market share and market power.
True or False?
In a perfectly competitive market a single firm holds substantial market power.
False.
In competitive markets no single firm has substantial market power; prices and outputs are set by supply and demand.
Market power can be measured using indicators such as market share, concentration ratios or to entry.
Market power can be measured using indicators such as market share, concentration ratios or barriers to entry.
Give two signs that the abuse of market power is causing market failure.
Signs include suppliers being able to control prices and restrict output to raise prices, alongside a lack of allocative and productive efficiency.
True or False?
Governments use competition policy and antitrust laws to reduce the abuse of market power.
True.
Governments regulate markets through competition policy to prevent firms abusing their market power.
Define profit maximisation.
Profit maximisation is the business objective of achieving the greatest possible profit, produced where marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
State the profit maximisation rule.
A firm maximises profit at the output where marginal cost (MC) equals marginal revenue (MR).
True or False?
When marginal cost is below marginal revenue, a firm can still increase profit by producing another unit.
True.
While MC < MR, additional profit can still be extracted by producing an extra unit of output.
At the profit maximising level of output, marginal cost is equal to marginal .
At the profit maximising level of output, marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue.
Why might a firm struggle to produce at the profit maximisation level in the short run?
A firm may not know where the level is, and constant price changes as marginal cost varies would be disruptive to customers.
Define satisficing.
Satisficing is when a firm aims for a satisfactory rather than maximum level of profit, enough to keep its owners or shareholders happy.
Name three alternative business objectives to profit maximisation.
Alternatives include growth, survival and social welfare, as well as satisficing.
True or False?
Many newly launched firms focus solely on survival in the short term.
True.
In the short term many new firms focus on survival, as a large share fail in their first year.
In the short term many new firms focus solely on business before pursuing other objectives.
In the short term many new firms focus solely on business survival before pursuing other objectives.
Define divorce of ownership from control.
The divorce of ownership from control occurs when there is a clear split between those who own a firm and those who run it day to day.
What is the principal-agent problem within a firm?
It arises when owners (principals) appoint managers (agents) whose differing goals create conflicts of interest.
True or False?
The divorce of ownership from control is most common in small sole-trader businesses.
False.
It usually occurs in larger firms, where there is a distinction between ownership and management.
Define perfect competition.
Perfect competition is a market structure with many buyers and sellers, no barriers to entry or exit, perfect knowledge and homogeneous products.
List the four characteristics of a perfectly competitive market.
Many buyers and sellers, no barriers to entry or exit, perfect knowledge of prices, and homogeneous products.
True or False?
Firms in perfect competition can build strong brand loyalty.
False.
Products are homogeneous, so perfect substitutes exist and firms cannot build brand loyalty.
Define price taker.
A price taker is a firm that must accept the market price because it has no power to influence price or quantity.
Firms in perfect competition have low market power, low market share and a low industry ratio.
Firms in perfect competition have low market power, low market share and a low industry concentration ratio.
At what level of output does a perfectly competitive firm maximise profit?
Where marginal cost equals marginal revenue (MC = MR).
True or False?
Firms in perfect competition can make abnormal profit in the short run.
True.
A firm may gain a short-lived competitive advantage that lets it earn abnormal profit in the short run.
Why is abnormal profit competed away in the long run under perfect competition?
Abnormal profit attracts new entrants; with no barriers to entry, supply rises, price falls and only normal profit remains.
Define normal profit in perfect competition.
Normal profit is earned in the long run where average revenue equals average cost (AR = AC).
True or False?
A perfectly competitive firm is making a short-run loss when average revenue is below average cost.
True.
When AR < AC at the profit maximising output, the firm makes a short-run loss.
What happens to loss-making firms in perfect competition in the long run?
Some firms leave the industry, supply falls, price rises and the remaining firms return to normal profit.
Define allocative efficiency.
Allocative efficiency occurs where average revenue equals marginal cost (AR = MC), giving consumers and producers the maximum possible benefit.
Define productive efficiency.
Productive efficiency occurs where marginal cost equals average cost (MC = AC), so average costs are minimised with no wasted resources.
Productive efficiency occurs at the output where marginal cost equals cost.
Productive efficiency occurs at the output where marginal cost equals average cost.
True or False?
Perfect competition is a real-world market structure commonly observed in practice.
False.
Perfect competition is a theoretical model that acts as a benchmark for judging efficiency in real markets.
Define monopolistic competition.
Monopolistic competition is a market structure with many small firms offering similar but differentiated products, and low barriers to entry.
How many firms operate in monopolistic competition, and how large are they?
There are a large number of small firms, each relatively small and able to act independently of the market.
True or False?
Firms in monopolistic competition are pure price takers with no ability to set price.
False.
Product differentiation gives them some price-setting ability, though only a low degree of market power.
In the long run, monopolistic competition is allocatively inefficient because price is greater than marginal .
In the long run, monopolistic competition is allocatively inefficient because price is greater than marginal cost.
Define product differentiation.
Product differentiation makes a product distinct from rivals', such as a nail bar offering express or pampered service.
What type of profit can a monopolistically competitive firm make in the short run?
It can make abnormal (supernormal) profit, where AR is greater than AC at the profit maximising output.
True or False?
In monopolistic competition the marginal revenue curve falls twice as quickly as the average revenue curve.
True.
Because the firm must lower price to sell more, marginal revenue falls twice as fast as average revenue.
Why does a monopolistically competitive firm face a downward-sloping demand curve?
It has some market power from product differentiation, so it must lower its price to sell an additional unit.
True or False?
Firms in monopolistic competition can make losses in the short run.
True.
A short-run loss occurs when AR is below AC at the profit maximising output.
Why is short-run abnormal profit eroded in the long run in monopolistic competition?
Low barriers to entry attract new firms, increasing supply until only normal profit remains.
Define non-price competition.
Non-price competition means competing through methods other than price, such as quality, location and branding, to raise differentiation and loyalty.
Give two non-price competition strategies used in monopolistic markets.
Examples include choosing a good location in a high-traffic area and encouraging word-of-mouth advertising through positive reviews.
In the long run, firms in monopolistic competition make profit as new entrants erode any abnormal profit.
In the long run, firms in monopolistic competition make normal profit as new entrants erode any abnormal profit.
Define oligopoly.
An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few large firms dominate the industry, with each firm having significant market power.
What are the key characteristics of an oligopolistic market?
An oligopoly has a few large firms, high barriers to entry and exit, a high concentration ratio and strong interdependence between firms.
True or False?
Firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, so each firm considers its rivals' likely reactions before acting.
True.
With few competitors, firms study each other's behaviour and are highly interdependent in their decisions.
Define concentration ratio.
A concentration ratio measures the percentage of total market share held by a specific number of the largest firms in an industry.
The higher the concentration ratio and the fewer the firms, the more the market power in an industry.
The higher the concentration ratio and the fewer the firms, the more concentrated the market power in an industry.
Define collusion.
Collusion is an illegal agreement between rival firms to control price or output, effectively acting like a monopoly to maximise profits.
What is the difference between a collusive and a non-collusive oligopoly?
In a collusive oligopoly firms cooperate to fix prices and restrict output, whereas in a non-collusive oligopoly firms actively compete to maintain or increase market share.
True or False?
Cooperation between rival firms is illegal, whereas collusion is legal.
False.
Cooperation is a legal agreement to share resources, whereas collusion is an illegal agreement to control price or output.
Define overt collusion.
Overt collusion occurs when firms explicitly agree to limit competition or raise prices, for example through a cartel.
What is tacit collusion?
Tacit collusion occurs when firms avoid formal agreements but closely monitor each other, usually following the lead of the largest firm in the industry.
Define cartel.
A cartel is the most restrictive form of overt collusion, where firms formally agree to fix prices or output, and is illegal in most countries.
The most common form of tacit collusion is price , where smaller firms follow a dominant firm's price.
The most common form of tacit collusion is price leadership, where smaller firms follow a dominant firm's price.
Why is there little incentive to compete on price in an oligopoly?
A price cut is quickly matched by rivals, so market share changes little while all firms suffer lower profits.
Define non-price competition.
Non-price competition is competition through methods other than price, such as advertising, branding and product differentiation, to build brand loyalty.
Why do oligopolistic firms tend to favour non-price competition over price competition?
Firms want to avoid a price war, because goods are close substitutes and a price cut is quickly matched by rivals, reducing profits for all.
True or False?
The kinked demand curve model explains why prices tend to be stable in an oligopoly.
True.
The change in elasticity above and below the current price creates price rigidity, so firms rarely change their price.
Define price rigidity.
Price rigidity is the tendency for prices to remain stable in an oligopoly because firms anticipate their rivals' reactions to any price change.
If a firm raises its price above the kink, rivals are unlikely to follow, so this section of the demand curve is .
If a firm raises its price above the kink, rivals are unlikely to follow, so this section of the demand curve is elastic.
In the kinked demand curve model, what happens if a firm lowers its price below the kink?
Rivals also lower their prices, so market share stays the same but total revenue falls for all firms; this section of demand is inelastic.
Define price war.
A price war occurs when competitors repeatedly lower prices to undercut each other in an attempt to gain or increase market share.
Give two examples of non-price competition used in oligopoly.
Firms compete through advertising, branding, packaging, improved customer service and loyalty schemes.
True or False?
High spending on advertising and branding can act as a barrier to entry in an oligopoly.
True.
Established brand loyalty makes it difficult for new firms to compete, which raises barriers to entry.
State one advantage of an oligopoly market for consumers.
Large-scale firms can achieve economies of scale, reducing average costs and potentially lowering prices, and may reinvest profits into innovation.
Define price leadership.
Price leadership occurs when a dominant firm sets the price and smaller firms set a price close to it.
A disadvantage of oligopoly is the potential for firms to engage in illegal or operate as cartels.
A disadvantage of oligopoly is the potential for firms to engage in illegal collusion or operate as cartels.
Define monopoly.
A monopoly is a market structure with a single seller, no close substitute products and complete market power over price and output.
What are the key characteristics of a monopoly?
A monopoly has a single seller, no substitute products, complete market power to set price and output, and high barriers to entry.
True or False?
The UK Competition and Markets Authority defines a monopoly as any firm with more than 25% market share.
True.
The Competition and Markets Authority treats any firm with more than 25% market share as a monopoly.
Define supernormal profit.
Supernormal profit is the profit earned when average revenue exceeds average cost, calculated as (P − AC) × Q.
At what level of output does a monopoly profit maximise?
A monopoly profit maximises where marginal cost equals marginal revenue (MC = MR).
On the monopoly diagram, supernormal profit is earned because average revenue is greater than average at the profit-maximising output.
On the monopoly diagram, supernormal profit is earned because average revenue is greater than average cost at the profit-maximising output.
Why can a monopoly sustain supernormal profit in the long run?
High barriers to entry prevent competitors from entering the market, so supernormal profit is not eroded over time.
True or False?
A monopoly leads to an efficient allocation of resources because it sets price equal to marginal cost.
False.
A monopoly causes a misallocation of resources because it sets price above marginal cost (P > MC).
Define price maker.
A price maker is a firm with enough market power to set its own price rather than accept the market price.
State one disadvantage of monopoly for consumers.
A lack of competition can lead to higher prices, less innovation, poorer product quality or worse customer service.
State one potential advantage of monopoly for consumers.
Supernormal profits may fund product innovation, and economies of scale could lower average costs and prices.
A monopoly is a price maker, so its revenue curves are downward .
A monopoly is a price maker, so its revenue curves are downward sloping.
Define price discrimination.
Price discrimination occurs when a firm charges different prices for the same good or service in order to maximise its revenue.
What three conditions are necessary for price discrimination to occur?
The firm must have market power to set prices, be able to separate consumers with different price elasticity of demand, and be able to prevent resale between sub-markets.
True or False?
Price discrimination requires a firm to be able to prevent consumers reselling the product between sub-markets.
True.
Without the ability to prevent resale, consumers could buy in the low-price market and resell in the high-price one.
Define third degree price discrimination.
Third degree price discrimination is when a firm charges different prices to different consumer groups for the same good or service.
For price discrimination to work, the firm must be able to separate consumers who have a different price of demand.
For price discrimination to work, the firm must be able to separate consumers who have a different price elasticity of demand.
What is first degree price discrimination?
First degree price discrimination occurs when a firm charges each consumer the maximum price they are willing and able to pay.
Define second degree price discrimination.
Second degree price discrimination occurs when a firm offers discounts for bulk buying, such as '3 for 2' offers.
In the rail travel example, why is a higher price charged for peak travel?
Peak demand is price inelastic, so raising the price increases total revenue; off-peak demand is elastic, so a lower price is set.
True or False?
Price discrimination increases producer surplus at the expense of consumer surplus.
True.
Firms raise total revenue and producer surplus, while consumer surplus falls.
State one way consumers can benefit from price discrimination.
Some consumers gain access to lower prices, and higher peak prices can reduce over-crowding, for example on train services.
State one disadvantage of price discrimination for consumers.
Many consumers pay higher prices, and setting up and enforcing price discrimination can raise a firm's average costs.
A firm using price discrimination profit maximises where marginal cost equals marginal .
A firm using price discrimination profit maximises where marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
Define competition.
Competition is the rivalry between firms in a market, based on the number of firms competing for market share.
What happens to the degree of competition as a market moves towards monopoly?
The degree of competition falls as the market structure moves closer to monopoly.
True or False?
In the short run, competition tends to lower prices for consumers.
True.
Firms cut prices in the short run to try to gain market share, benefiting consumers.
In the long run, only the most firms survive, making the market more allocatively efficient.
In the long run, only the most efficient firms survive, making the market more allocatively efficient.
Define non-price competition.
Non-price competition refers to strategies used to attract customers without changing price, such as after-sales service, packaging and improved quality.
Give one example of a non-price competition strategy.
After-sales service, such as technical support, is a non-price strategy that encourages repeat purchases.
True or False?
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is a form of price competition.
False.
CSR is a form of non-price competition that attracts socially-conscious consumers.
Define creative destruction.
Creative destruction is the process, described by Schumpeter, in which innovation replaces old technologies and business models with newer, more efficient ones.
Which economist coined the term creative destruction?
The Austrian economist Schumpeter coined the term creative destruction.
In the entertainment market, adapted to changing consumer wants while Blockbuster failed and exited.
In the entertainment market, Netflix adapted to changing consumer wants while Blockbuster failed and exited.
How can abnormal profits benefit consumers in the long run?
Abnormal profits can be invested into research and development, funding innovation that improves quality over time.
True or False?
Under creative destruction, firms that fail to innovate risk being forced to exit the industry.
True.
Firms that fail to adapt are made obsolete by newer, more efficient rivals and exit the market.
Define contestable market.
A contestable market is one with freedom of entry and low costs of exit, leaving it under constant threat from new entrants.
What is a contestable market based on, rather than the number of firms competing?
A contestable market is based on the threat of new entrants, not the number of firms competing.
True or False?
Contestable markets are characterised by high barriers to entry and exit.
False.
Contestable markets have low or non-existent barriers to entry and exit.
A sunk cost is an investment that has been made and cannot be .
A sunk cost is an investment that has been made and cannot be recovered.
Define sunk cost.
A sunk cost is an investment that has been made and cannot be recovered, such as spending on specialised assets or advertising.
How do high sunk costs affect a market's contestability?
High sunk costs reduce contestability, as firms are more hesitant to enter or leave the market.
Define hit-and-run competition.
Hit-and-run competition occurs when a firm enters an industry quickly to capture short-run supernormal profit, then exits just as quickly.
True or False?
Lower sunk costs make a market more contestable.
True.
The lower the sunk costs, the easier it is for firms to enter and exit, raising contestability.
How might an incumbent firm change its pricing in a highly contestable market?
It may switch from profit maximisation to limit pricing, even setting price equal to average cost to deter entry.
The more contestable a market, the more the behaviour of firms resembles .
The more contestable a market, the more the behaviour of firms resembles perfect competition.
What conditions must exist for hit-and-run competition to occur?
Low sunk costs and freedom of entry and exit must exist for hit-and-run competition to occur.
True or False?
In a contestable market, new firms have access to the same technology as existing firms.
True.
Contestable markets have no competitive disadvantages on entry, so new firms can access the same technology.
Define allocative efficiency.
Allocative efficiency occurs where average revenue equals marginal cost (AR = MC), so resources give consumers and producers the maximum possible benefit.
Define productive efficiency.
Productive efficiency occurs where marginal cost equals average cost (MC = AC), so average costs are minimised with no wastage of resources.
What is dynamic efficiency and how does it arise?
Dynamic efficiency is long-term efficiency that arises as a firm reinvests its profits in innovation, lowering average costs over time.
True or False?
Allocative efficiency occurs where marginal cost equals average cost.
False.
That describes productive efficiency; allocative efficiency occurs where AR = MC.
Productive efficiency occurs at the level of output where average costs are .
Productive efficiency occurs at the level of output where average costs are minimised.
Why is a perfectly competitive firm unlikely to be dynamically efficient?
It is unlikely to earn supernormal profits to reinvest, so it struggles to fund innovation.
Define static efficiency.
Static efficiency is efficiency at a particular point in time, resulting from allocative or productive efficiency.
True or False?
A firm in imperfect competition producing at its profit-maximising output is allocatively efficient.
False.
At profit maximisation AR is greater than MC, so the firm is not allocatively efficient.
A firm that reinvests its profits into research and development can achieve efficiency.
A firm that reinvests its profits into research and development can achieve dynamic efficiency.
Name one way a firm can improve its dynamic efficiency.
Investing in research and development helps firms allocate resources optimally and cut long-term costs.
In an imperfectly competitive market, at what output would productive efficiency occur?
Productive efficiency would occur where MC = AC, not at the profit-maximising level of output.
True or False?
Investing in human capital through training can raise labour productivity and improve dynamic efficiency.
True.
Training and rewarding employees incentivises higher labour productivity, supporting dynamic efficiency.
Define consumer surplus.
Consumer surplus is the difference between the amount a consumer is willing to pay for a product and the price they actually pay.
Define producer surplus.
Producer surplus is the difference between the amount a producer is willing to sell a product for and the price they actually receive.
On a supply and demand diagram, where does consumer surplus lie?
Consumer surplus lies below the demand curve and above the equilibrium price.
True or False?
Producer surplus lies above the supply curve.
True.
Producer surplus is the area between the equilibrium price and the supply curve, lying above it.
Consumer surplus plus producer surplus equals surplus.
Consumer surplus plus producer surplus equals social surplus.
What happens to consumer and producer surplus at market equilibrium?
At equilibrium, both consumer and producer surplus are maximised.
True or False?
Compared with perfect competition, a monopoly tends to have lower consumer surplus and higher producer surplus.
True.
A monopoly's higher prices and lower output reduce consumer surplus and raise producer surplus.
Why does a monopoly reduce consumer surplus compared with perfect competition?
A monopoly charges a higher price and restricts output, transferring some consumer surplus to producers.
Define welfare loss.
Welfare loss is the cost to society caused by the inefficient allocation of resources, such as under a monopoly.
A monopolist produces where MC equals MR, known as the profit level of output.
A monopolist produces where MC equals MR, known as the profit maximisation level of output.
How does price discrimination in a monopoly affect overall consumer surplus?
Price discrimination reduces overall consumer surplus, as producer surplus rises; some consumers gain while others lose out.
True or False?
Under price discrimination, consumer surplus rises in the lower-priced, more elastic market.
True.
Off-peak (elastic) consumers pay a lower price, so their consumer surplus increases.
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