Diet & Health (Edexcel A Level Biology (A) SNAB): Flashcards

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  • Define cardiovascular disease.

Cards in this collection (150)

  • Define cardiovascular disease.

    Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a general term for conditions affecting the heart and blood vessels, usually associated with atherosclerosis and thrombosis.

  • Define risk factor.

    A risk factor is a factor linked to an increased likelihood of developing a disease. Exposure to one does not guarantee that the disease will develop.

  • Name the seven factors named in the specification that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    The named risk factors are:

    • Genetics

    • Diet

    • Age

    • Gender

    • High blood pressure

    • Smoking

    • Inactivity

  • Explain how high blood pressure increases the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    High blood pressure damages the endothelium of the arteries.

    This triggers the inflammatory response that leads to atheroma formation, and the rough surface increases the risk of thrombosis.

  • Explain why regular physical inactivity increases the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    Inactivity raises blood pressure and contributes to weight gain.

    It also tends to raise LDL cholesterol levels, increasing the risk of atheroma formation.

  • Which cardiovascular disease risk factors are outside an individual's control?

    Genetics (a genetic predisposition to CVD).

    Age and gender, which are biological factors that cannot be changed.

  • Which cardiovascular disease risk factors are largely within an individual's control?

    Lifestyle factors such as diet, smoking, alcohol intake and level of physical activity.

  • True or False?

    Exposure to a risk factor guarantees that a person will develop the associated disease.

    False.

    A risk factor only raises the likelihood of the disease. For example, a smoker is far more likely to develop lung cancer, but is not certain to.

  • Why is the risk of cardiovascular disease often described as resulting from an interaction of factors?

    A risk factor may show a correlation with a disease, but a correlation does not prove causation.

  • Give an example of a risk factor that is a substance in a person's environment.

    Several factors act together to increase the likelihood of arterial damage.

    For example, someone with a diet high in cholesterol who also smokes and does not exercise has a much higher risk than someone with only one of these factors.

  • Give an example of a risk factor that is a substance in a person's environment.

    Air pollution in a crowded city, or asbestos in an old building.

  • Suggest why healthier lifestyle choices are not equally easy for everyone to make.

    Unhealthy food is often cheaper and more convenient than healthy food.

    Not everyone has the time, money or facilities available to exercise regularly.

  • Define correlation.

    A correlation is a relationship in which a change in one variable occurs at the same time as a change in another variable.

  • Define causation.

    Causation is a relationship in which the change in one variable directly causes the change in another variable.

  • Why can a correlation between a risk factor and a disease not be used to conclude causation?

    Many other factors may influence the likelihood of the disease.

    These factors could be responsible for the pattern seen, so a single correlation is not enough evidence.

  • What should you include when describing data from a study?

    Identify the trend and state what the results show.

    Quote numbers from the data to support the description, for example "the 80+ age group has the highest relative risk at 2.4".

  • Why should conclusions not be extrapolated beyond the setting of a study?

    The findings only apply to the group actually studied.

    For example, a study on 40–50 year olds cannot be applied to people over 70, and a study in mice cannot be applied directly to humans.

  • Why are larger sample sizes more likely to give valid results?

    A larger sample is more likely to be representative of the population being studied.

    This reduces the effect of anomalies and individual variation.

  • Why should participants in a study be selected randomly?

    Random selection removes bias and increases the chance of a representative sample.

    Selecting friends or people at a gym, for example, would pick people with similar lifestyles.

  • Why does a study testing a drug for heart disease need a control group?

    The control group is not given the drug, providing a point of comparison.

    This ensures any effect seen is due to the drug and not some other factor.

  • What is the difference between reliable data and valid data?

    Reliable data can be reproduced by repeating the experiment and getting similar results.

    Valid data measures what it set out to measure, with only one independent variable tested and all others controlled.

  • How might bias be introduced into a study?

    By selecting a non-random sample, or by manipulating data to emphasise a particular outcome.

    This is a particular risk if a researcher is being paid to produce a certain result.

  • Define meta-analysis.

    A meta-analysis is an analysis in which several studies of similar design are examined together, so that stronger conclusions can be drawn than from any single study.

  • What is conflicting evidence, and what does it indicate?

    Conflicting evidence shows a different pattern from evidence gathered elsewhere.

    It is often a sign that other variables are involved, and means more research is needed to establish which pattern is correct.

  • Define risk.

    Risk is the chance, or probability, that a harmful event will occur.

  • Give three reasons why people might overestimate a risk.

    Reasons include:

    • Misleading information in the media, or overexposure to information

    • Personal experience of the associated risk

    • The event being unfamiliar or causing severe harm

  • Give three reasons why people might underestimate a risk.

    Reasons include:

    • A lack of information, or misunderstanding of the factors that increase risk

    • No personal experience of the associated risk

    • The harm being non-immediate, such as the long-term effects of a poor diet

  • Before findings are accepted, similar studies should be repeated and produce conclusions.

    Before findings are accepted, similar studies should be repeated and produce similar conclusions.

  • True or False?

    A single study is sufficient to conclude that a risk factor causes a disease.

    False.

    Evidence from one study is not enough. Multiple similar studies must be analysed together, and statistical tests used to show the differences are significant.

  • Name the four types of medication used to treat cardiovascular disease.

    The four named treatments are:

    • Antihypertensives

    • Statins

    • Anticoagulants

    • Platelet inhibitors

  • Define antihypertensive.

    An antihypertensive is a drug that lowers blood pressure, reducing the risk of damage to the arterial endothelium and therefore of atheroma and thrombosis.

  • Name three types of antihypertensive and state how each lowers blood pressure.

    Beta blockers prevent increases in heart rate.

    Vasodilators increase the diameter of the blood vessels.

    Diuretics reduce blood volume by decreasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, so less water is reabsorbed.

  • Explain how statins reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    Statins block an enzyme in the liver that is needed to make cholesterol.

    This lowers the concentration of LDL cholesterol in the blood, reducing the risk of atheroma formation.

  • How do anticoagulants reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

    They reduce blood clotting, which decreases the likelihood of thrombosis and of a blood vessel being blocked by a clot.

  • How do platelet inhibitors work, and give an example.

    They prevent platelets from clumping together, so blood clots are less likely to form.

    Aspirin is an example.

  • Give a risk associated with taking anticoagulants or platelet inhibitors.

    Because blood clots less readily, there is a risk of excessive bleeding if the patient is injured or has an internal wound such as an ulcer.

  • Give a risk associated with taking statins.

    Possible side effects include muscle pain and, more rarely, liver damage.

  • Give a risk associated with taking antihypertensives.

    Side effects can include dizziness, drowsiness and headaches, particularly if blood pressure is lowered too far.

  • High blood pressure is also known as , which is why the drugs that treat it are called antihypertensives.

    High blood pressure is also known as hypertension, which is why the drugs that treat it are called antihypertensives.

  • True or False?

    Platelet inhibitors are a type of anticoagulant.

    True.

    Both reduce blood clotting; platelet inhibitors do so specifically by stopping platelets from clumping together.

  • Why is reducing risk factors considered preferable to treating cardiovascular disease with medication?

    It prevents the disease from developing in the first place, so the patient avoids the side effects and long-term costs associated with taking medication.

  • Define energy budget.

    An energy budget is the amount of energy an organism takes in minus the amount it transfers during life processes such as growth, movement, reproduction and respiration.

  • Energy budget is calculated as energy input minus energy .

    Energy budget is calculated as energy input minus energy output.

  • Why does every cell need a constant supply of energy?

    To fuel metabolic processes.

    This energy is released from food molecules such as carbohydrates and lipids during respiration.

  • In what units is data on energy budgets usually given?

    Calories (Cal) or kilocalories (kcal), which are the same thing.

    Kilojoules (kJ) are an alternative unit.

  • Roughly how much energy does an average adult need each day to maintain a healthy weight?

    About 2 000 kcal, which is approximately 8 700 kJ.

  • A person takes in 12 400 kJ and expends 4 500 kJ in a day. Calculate their energy budget and state what it means.

    12 400 − 4 500 = 7 900 kJ

    This is an excess of 7 900 kJ, so the person would be expected to gain weight.

  • Explain what happens to body mass when energy intake is greater than energy output.

    The excess energy is converted into fats and stored by the body.

    The person gains weight, and over a sustained period may become overweight and eventually obese.

  • Explain what happens to body mass when energy intake is less than energy output.

    The body takes energy from elsewhere, converting fat reserves into energy.

    The person loses weight, and if the difference is large and sustained may become underweight.

  • True or False?

    A balanced energy budget means energy intake equals energy output.

    True.

    When intake and output are equal, body mass stays approximately constant.

  • If energy intake exceeds energy output over a long period, the excess energy is stored as and the person gains weight.

    If energy intake exceeds energy output over a long period, the excess energy is stored as fat and the person gains weight.

  • Outline how you would use a graph of energy expenditure per minute to calculate a person's daily energy output.

    Read the energy expenditure in kJ/min for each activity from the graph.

    Multiply each by 60 and then by the number of hours spent on that activity.

    Add the totals for all activities together.

  • Why is the simple energy budget model considered an oversimplification?

    Current research suggests that not all calories are equal.

    The body appears to process different foods in different ways, for example fats compared with sugars.

  • Define monosaccharide.

    A monosaccharide is the monomer of carbohydrates — a simple sugar that can join with others to form larger carbohydrate polymers.

  • Which three elements do all carbohydrates contain?

    Carbon (C), hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O).

  • Name the three types of carbohydrate.

    Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.

  • Name the three types of monosaccharide classified by carbon number, and give an example of each.

    Triose (3C), for example glyceraldehyde.

    Pentose (5C), for example ribose.

    Hexose (6C), for example glucose.

  • Glucose is a sugar because it contains six carbon atoms.

    Glucose is a hexose sugar because it contains six carbon atoms.

  • Describe the ring structure of a glucose molecule.

    Carbons 1 to 5 form the ring.

    Carbon 6 sticks out above the ring.

  • True or False?

    Carbohydrates contain nitrogen as well as carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

    False.

    Carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Nitrogen is found in proteins, not in carbohydrates.

  • Why are carbon atoms central to the structure of organic compounds?

    Each carbon can form strong covalent bonds, making the compounds very stable.

    Carbon can bond with oxygen, nitrogen and sulfur, and can form straight chains, branched chains or rings.

  • What is the main function of a monosaccharide?

    To store energy within its bonds.

    When these bonds are broken during respiration, the energy is released.

  • Explain how the structure of glucose suits its function as an energy source.

    It is soluble, so it can be transported easily around the body in the blood.

    It contains many covalent bonds, which store the energy released during respiration.

  • Define polymerisation.

    Polymerisation is the process in which many small repeating subunits, called monomers, bond together to form a large molecule called a polymer.

  • True or False?

    All monosaccharides contain six carbon atoms.

    False.

    Monosaccharides vary in carbon number — trioses have three, pentoses have five and hexoses have six.

  • Monosaccharides join together through reactions to form larger carbohydrates.

    Monosaccharides join together through condensation reactions to form larger carbohydrates.

  • Define glycosidic bond.

    A glycosidic bond is the strong covalent bond formed when two hydroxyl (OH) groups on different monosaccharides interact.

  • What type of reaction forms a glycosidic bond, and what is released?

    A condensation reaction.

    One molecule of water is released for every glycosidic bond formed.

  • What determines whether a 1,4 or a 1,6 glycosidic bond forms?

    The location of the OH groups involved.

    OH groups on carbon 1 and carbon 4 give a 1,4 bond; OH groups on carbon 1 and carbon 6 give a 1,6 bond.

  • What type of reaction breaks a glycosidic bond?

    A hydrolysis reaction, in which a molecule of water is added.

  • The word hydrolysis comes from hydro, meaning water, and lysis, meaning to .

    The word hydrolysis comes from hydro, meaning water, and lysis, meaning to break.

  • Which two monosaccharides join to form maltose?

    Two molecules of glucose.

  • Which two monosaccharides join to form sucrose?

    Glucose and fructose.

  • Which two monosaccharides join to form lactose?

    Glucose and galactose.

  • Why are monosaccharides bonded together for storage?

    The resulting polysaccharides are insoluble.

    This means they have less influence on osmosis within the cell.

  • Give two examples of hydrolysis reactions in the body.

    The digestion of food in the alimentary canal.

    The breakdown of stored carbohydrates in muscle and liver cells for use in respiration.

  • True or False?

    A glycosidic bond is a weak bond that breaks easily.

    False.

    A glycosidic bond is a strong covalent bond, and water must be added in a hydrolysis reaction to break it.

  • Amylopectin, a form of starch, contains both 1,4 and glycosidic bonds.

    Amylopectin, a form of starch, contains both 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds.

  • How many water molecules are released when a chain of five glucose molecules is formed?

    Four, because four glycosidic bonds are needed to join five monosaccharides, and each bond releases one water molecule.

  • Define disaccharide.

    A disaccharide is a carbohydrate formed when two monosaccharides join together by a glycosidic bond in a condensation reaction.

  • Define condensation reaction.

    A condensation reaction is one in which two molecules join by forming a new chemical bond, with a molecule of water released in the process.

  • Describe the structure of maltose.

    Two molecules of glucose joined by a 1,4 glycosidic bond.

  • Describe the structure of sucrose.

    A molecule of glucose joined to a molecule of fructose by a 1,2 glycosidic bond.

  • Describe the structure of lactose.

    A molecule of glucose joined to a molecule of galactose by a 1,4 glycosidic bond.

  • The glycosidic bond in sucrose is a bond, because it links carbon 1 of glucose to carbon 2 of fructose.

    The glycosidic bond in sucrose is a 1,2 bond, because it links carbon 1 of glucose to carbon 2 of fructose.

  • What is the main function of a disaccharide?

    To provide the body with a quick-release source of energy.

  • Explain why disaccharides provide a quick-release source of energy.

    They are made of only two sugar units.

    This means they are easily broken down by enzymes in the digestive system into their monosaccharides, which are then absorbed into the bloodstream.

  • Explain why disaccharides are soluble in water.

    They contain a large number of hydroxyl groups.

    These form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, allowing the disaccharide to dissolve.

  • True or False?

    A molecule of water is used up when a disaccharide is formed.

    False.

    A molecule of water is released, because a disaccharide forms by a condensation reaction.

  • By what common name is sucrose known?

    Table sugar.

  • Lactose is the disaccharide found naturally in , and is made from glucose and galactose.

    Lactose is the disaccharide found naturally in milk, and is made from glucose and galactose.

  • Which two disaccharides contain a 1,4 glycosidic bond?

    Maltose and lactose.

  • Define polysaccharide.

    A polysaccharide is a carbohydrate polymer made of many monosaccharides joined by glycosidic bonds in condensation reactions.

  • Give two reasons why starch and glycogen are well suited to storage.

    They are compact, so large quantities can be stored in a small space.

    They are insoluble, so they have no osmotic effect on the cell.

  • Explain why storing glucose itself, rather than as a polysaccharide, would be a problem for a cell.

    Glucose is soluble, so it would raise the solute concentration of the cytoplasm.

    This would cause water to move into the cell by osmosis.

  • Which two polysaccharides make up starch?

    Amylose and amylopectin.

  • Describe the structure of amylose.

    An unbranched, helix-shaped chain of alpha glucose molecules.

    It contains only 1,4 glycosidic bonds, and the helix makes it compact so more can be stored.

  • Describe the structure of amylopectin.

    A branched molecule of alpha glucose.

    It contains 1,4 glycosidic bonds along the chains and 1,6 glycosidic bonds at the branch points.

  • Explain the advantage of amylopectin being branched.

    Branching produces many terminal glucose molecules.

    These can be quickly hydrolysed for use in respiration, or added to for storage.

  • Where is starch stored in a plant cell?

    As granules inside plastids, membrane-bound organelles such as amyloplasts.

  • Describe the structure of glycogen.

    A highly branched, non-coiled polysaccharide of alpha glucose.

    It contains both 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds, and is more branched than amylopectin.

  • Explain why glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin.

    More branching gives more terminal glucose molecules that can be added to or removed by hydrolysis.

    This allows the rapid storage or release of glucose, which animals need because they are very metabolically active.

  • Starch is the storage polysaccharide of plants, whereas glycogen is the storage polysaccharide of animals and .

    Starch is the storage polysaccharide of plants, whereas glycogen is the storage polysaccharide of animals and fungi.

  • In which two types of human cell is glycogen found in high concentrations, and why?

    Liver and muscle cells.

    They store glycogen as visible granules, which enables a high rate of cellular respiration.

  • True or False?

    A branched polysaccharide is broken down more slowly than an unbranched one.

    False.

    Branching increases the rate of breakdown, because it provides more terminal glucose molecules for enzymes to act on.

  • A coiled polysaccharide such as amylose is more , which makes it well suited to storage.

    A coiled polysaccharide such as amylose is more compact, which makes it well suited to storage.

  • Which elements do lipids contain, and how do they differ from carbohydrates?

    Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

    Unlike carbohydrates, lipids contain a much lower proportion of oxygen.

  • Define triglyceride.

    A triglyceride is a lipid formed from one molecule of glycerol joined to three fatty acids by ester bonds. Triglycerides are the main component of fats and oils.

  • Why are lipids described as hydrophobic?

    They are non-polar molecules.

    This means they do not form hydrogen bonds with water, so they are insoluble in it.

  • Describe the structure of a fatty acid.

    A hydrocarbon chain, known as the R group, with a methyl group at one end.

    At the other end is a carboxyl group, giving the shorthand formula RCOOH.

  • In what two ways can fatty acids vary?

    The length of the hydrocarbon chain.

    Whether the chain is saturated or unsaturated.

  • What is a saturated fatty acid?

    One that contains no carbon-carbon double bonds.

    The chain is therefore saturated with hydrogen atoms and forms an unbranched, linear chain. Saturated fats are found mainly in animal fat.

  • What is an unsaturated fatty acid?

    One that contains one or more carbon-carbon double bonds.

    Mono-unsaturated fatty acids have one, and poly-unsaturated have more than one. They are found mainly in vegetable oils.

  • Define ester bond.

    An ester bond is the bond formed when a hydroxyl (-OH) group of glycerol reacts with the carboxyl (-COOH) group of a fatty acid.

  • Describe how a triglyceride is synthesised.

    Three fatty acids join to one molecule of glycerol.

    Each bond forms between a hydroxyl group of glycerol and a carboxyl group of a fatty acid, in a condensation reaction.

    This process is called esterification.

  • For every one triglyceride that forms, molecules of water are released.

    For every one triglyceride that forms, three molecules of water are released.

  • Give four functions of lipids in organisms.

    Lipids are used for:

    • Energy storage and energy yield

    • Insulation

    • Buoyancy and protection

    • Hormonal communication

  • True or False?

    Glycerol is an alcohol.

    True.

    Glycerol is an organic molecule containing hydroxyl groups bonded to carbon atoms, which is what defines an alcohol.

  • What is the difference between a cis and a trans fatty acid?

    In a cis fatty acid the hydrogen atoms are on the same side of the double bond, and it can be metabolised by enzymes.

    In a trans fatty acid they are on opposite sides, so it cannot form enzyme-substrate complexes and is not metabolised. Trans fats are linked to coronary heart disease.

  • Define lipoprotein.

    A lipoprotein is a molecule made of lipid and protein that transports cholesterol around the body in the blood.

  • Why do cells need a source of cholesterol?

    For cell membrane functioning.

    For the structure of sex hormones.

    For the synthesis of bile.

  • Describe the composition and role of high density lipoproteins (HDLs).

    HDLs contain unsaturated fat, cholesterol and protein.

    They transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver to be recycled or excreted, so they lower blood cholesterol.

  • Describe the composition and role of low density lipoproteins (LDLs).

    LDLs contain saturated fat, cholesterol and protein.

    They move cholesterol from the liver into the bloodstream, where it stays until cells need it, so they raise blood cholesterol.

  • Explain how high levels of LDLs lead to a rise in blood cholesterol.

    LDLs normally bind to receptors on cell surface membranes so they can be taken up by cells.

    High LDL levels block these receptors, so cholesterol is not removed from the blood and its level rises.

  • Why is the ratio of LDLs to HDLs more useful than labelling one 'good' and one 'bad'?

    Both are needed by the body, so it is the balance between them that matters.

    A healthy ratio is roughly 3:1 LDL:HDL; a ratio greater than 5:1 is thought to increase the risk of heart disease.

  • How are HDLs thought to act directly on atherosclerosis?

    They are thought to contribute to the removal of cholesterol from the fatty plaques that form in the artery walls.

  • Give three pieces of evidence for a causal link between blood cholesterol and cardiovascular disease.

    Evidence includes:

    • Statins, which lower blood cholesterol, also reduce the risk of heart disease

    • Diets high in saturated fat, which raise LDL levels, are linked to increased CVD events

    • Plaque regression has been observed alongside lipid-lowering therapy, with fewer cardiovascular events

  • Why might a correlation between a high saturated fat diet and raised LDL cholesterol not prove causation?

    A third variable that has not been measured may be influencing LDL levels.

    For example, alleles that affect how cells metabolise dietary fats.

  • How is waist-to-hip ratio calculated, and what values are considered healthy?

    Waist circumference in cm divided by hip circumference in cm.

    WHO guidelines classify abdominal obesity as a ratio of 0.90 or above in men and 0.85 or above in women.

  • How is body mass index (BMI) calculated?

    Mass in kilograms divided by the square of height in metres.

  • State the BMI ranges for underweight, normal, overweight and obese.

    The categories are:

    • Under 18.5 — underweight

    • 18.5–24.9 — normal

    • 25–29.9 — overweight

    • 30 or above — obese

  • How has scientific knowledge about diet been used to help the public reduce their risk of heart disease?

    Food labels on packaging show consumers what they are eating.

    Traffic light labels warn of high levels of sugar, saturated fat and salt, allowing people to make informed choices.

  • How has research linking smoking to CVD changed public health practice?

    Health warnings now appear on all cigarette packets.

    TV and media portray smoking as an unhealthy choice, and free support including prescriptions is available to help people stop smoking.

  • A traffic light label showing indicates that a food is high in sugar, saturated fat or salt.

    A traffic light label showing red indicates that a food is high in sugar, saturated fat or salt.

  • True or False?

    All scientific studies agree that dietary saturated fat increases the risk of CVD.

    False.

    Many studies show a link, but others are inconclusive on the connection between dietary saturated fat and CVD risk.

  • Give two initiatives used to reduce inactivity as a risk factor for CVD.

    Increased hours of physical education in schools.

    Targeted campaigns aimed at particular groups, such as teenagers.

  • Define ascorbic acid.

    Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for vitamin C. It is a good reducing agent and is therefore easily oxidised.

  • What colour change does DCPIP show in the presence of vitamin C?

    DCPIP is a blue dye that turns colourless.

  • Define titration.

    Titration is a method of chemical analysis that determines the quantity of a substance present by gradually adding another substance until a reaction is complete.

  • Outline the method for finding the volume of vitamin C solution needed to decolourise DCPIP.

    Measure 1 cm³ of DCPIP solution into a test tube.

    Add the vitamin C solution drop by drop from a graduated pipette or burette, shaking for a set time after each drop.

    Record the volume added when the solution turns colourless.

  • Why must the shaking time be kept the same after each drop is added?

    It is a control variable.

    Keeping it constant ensures the only factor affecting the result is the concentration of vitamin C.

  • Define calibration curve.

    A calibration curve is a line of best fit produced using solutions of known concentration, against which unknown samples can be compared to estimate their concentration.

  • What is plotted on each axis of the calibration curve in this practical?

    Volume of vitamin C solution needed to decolourise DCPIP on the y axis.

    Concentration of vitamin C on the x axis.

  • What trend is expected between vitamin C concentration and the volume needed to decolourise DCPIP?

    As the concentration of vitamin C increases, the volume needed to decolourise the DCPIP decreases.

  • A range of vitamin C solutions of known concentration can be prepared accurately using dilution.

    A range of vitamin C solutions of known concentration can be prepared accurately using serial dilution.

  • State the safety precautions needed when using DCPIP.

    DCPIP is an irritant.

    Avoid contact with the skin and wear eye protection.

  • A mean of 0.6 cm³ of 1% vitamin C solution decolourises 1 cm³ of DCPIP. Calculate the mass of vitamin C needed.

    1 cm³ of 1% vitamin C solution contains 10 mg of vitamin C.

    mass = 10 × 0.6 = 6 mg

  • If 6 mg of vitamin C decolourises 1 cm³ of DCPIP and 1.4 cm³ of fruit juice is needed to do the same, calculate the mass of vitamin C in the juice sample.

    mass in sample = mass to decolourise DCPIP × volume of juice used

    = 6 × 1.4 = 8.4 mg

  • Why should each concentration be tested three times and a mean calculated?

    Repeating reduces the effect of random error and any anomalous results.

    This makes the results more reliable.

  • True or False?

    The calibration curve gives the exact vitamin C concentration of an unknown fruit juice.

    False.

    It gives an estimate of the concentration, found by comparing the juice result against the curve.

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