Exam code: J250
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How does the World Health Organisation define health?
A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being — not merely the absence of disease.

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Why is health more than just the absence of disease?
Mental health and the level of social support a person has both matter as well as physical illness.
Define communicable disease.
A disease caused by a pathogen, which can be spread from one individual to another.
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How does the World Health Organisation define health?
A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being — not merely the absence of disease.
Why is health more than just the absence of disease?
Mental health and the level of social support a person has both matter as well as physical illness.
Define communicable disease.
A disease caused by a pathogen, which can be spread from one individual to another.
Define non-communicable disease.
A disease that is not caused by a pathogen and cannot be passed on between individuals.
Give two examples of a non-communicable disease.
Asthma and coronary heart disease. Most cancers are non-communicable too.
Give an example of a communicable disease.
Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus.
Why does having one disease make another more likely?
The immune system may be weakened, or the diseases may interact in ways that damage health further.
What does HIV do to the immune system?
It infects and destroys lymphocytes, so fewer antibodies can be made and the body cannot fight infection well.
How does HIV lead to other infections such as tuberculosis?
With too few lymphocytes, the immune system cannot fight off opportunistic infections that a healthy body would resist.
How does HIV avoid being destroyed by the immune system?
It repeatedly changes its protein coat, so lymphocytes do not recognise it.
What is the link between HPV and cervical cancer?
HPV infects cells of the cervix and can trigger cervical cancer, so it increases the risk of developing it.
How is the risk of cervical cancer from HPV reduced?
By vaccination against HPV, given before people become sexually active.
How can physical illness affect mental health?
Severe illness can lead to depression, which in turn can weaken the immune system and worsen physical health.
Name three factors that raise the risk of non-communicable disease.
Diet, stress and a person's life situation, including income and access to healthcare.
A disease that can be passed from person to person is described as ________.
A disease that can be passed from person to person is described as communicable.
HIV destroys ________, the white blood cells that make antibodies.
HIV destroys lymphocytes, the white blood cells that make antibodies.
True or False?
Cancer can be caught from another person.
False.
Cancer is non-communicable. Some viruses, such as HPV, can increase the risk of developing it.
True or False?
Someone with no illness is automatically in good health.
False.
Health also depends on mental and social well-being, not just the absence of disease.
Define pathogen.
A microorganism that causes disease in another organism.
Name the four types of pathogen.
Viruses, bacteria, protists and fungi.
How do pathogenic bacteria damage the body?
They reproduce very quickly and release toxins that damage cells.
Name a bacterial disease of humans.
Tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Cholera and bacterial meningitis are others.
Name a fungal disease of humans.
Athlete's foot.
Name a protist disease of humans.
Malaria, caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
Name a viral plant disease.
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
Name a fungal plant disease.
Barley powdery mildew, caused by Erysiphe graminis.
Name a bacterial plant disease.
Crown gall disease, caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
Give four ways a pathogen can be transmitted.
Through water, through the air, by direct contact, and in body fluids.
Ingestion, animal vectors and the soil are others.
How is malaria transmitted?
By an animal vector — the mosquito.
How is HIV transmitted?
Through body fluids — during sexual contact, by sharing needles, or from parent to infant in breast milk.
How is crown gall disease transmitted between plants?
Through the soil.
Give three individual actions that reduce the spread of disease.
Good personal hygiene, such as handwashing.
Self-isolating when sick.
Being vaccinated.
How can detecting an antigen reduce the spread of a disease?
It allows early diagnosis, so an infected person can be treated or isolated before infecting others.
How is DNA testing used in relation to disease?
It can detect alleles that indicate a person is likely to develop a disease later, so they can prepare or change their lifestyle.
Why does visual identification of disease matter?
Spotting the early signs allows quick treatment, before the disease has developed too far.
How can social conditions affect the spread of disease?
Crowded housing, poor sanitation, poor diet and limited healthcare all make disease spread more easily.
All ________ are pathogenic, because they can only reproduce inside living cells.
All viruses are pathogenic, because they can only reproduce inside living cells.
Malaria is caused by a ________, a type of single-celled eukaryotic pathogen.
Malaria is caused by a protist, a type of single-celled eukaryotic pathogen.
True or False?
All bacteria and fungi cause disease.
False.
Only a small minority are pathogenic. Most are harmless or useful.
True or False?
Fungal diseases are more common in plants than in animals.
True.
In plants they can be very serious and threaten whole crops.
Name the two main types of white blood cell.
Lymphocytes and phagocytes.
What is the function of a phagocyte?
It carries out phagocytosis — engulfing and digesting pathogens.
Describe how a phagocyte destroys a pathogen.
Its sensitive membrane detects chemicals given off by the pathogen.
It then engulfs the pathogen and releases digestive enzymes to break it down.
How is a phagocyte adapted to its function?
Its multi-lobed nucleus lets it change shape easily as it chases and engulfs pathogens.
What is the function of a lymphocyte?
It produces antibodies to destroy pathogens and antitoxins to neutralise the toxins they release.
How is a lymphocyte adapted to its function?
It has well-developed cell machinery, such as many ribosomes, so large numbers of antibodies can be made quickly.
How can you recognise a lymphocyte under a microscope?
By its large, round nucleus that fills nearly the whole cell, and its clear cytoplasm.
Besides antibodies, give two other ways lymphocytes help.
They produce marker molecules so phagocytes recognise pathogens as foreign.
They make pathogens stick together, making phagocytosis more effective.
Define platelet.
A fragment of a cell in the blood that is involved in clotting and forming scabs.
Describe how a blood clot forms.
Platelets release chemicals that turn soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
The fibrin forms a mesh across the wound, trapping red blood cells to make a clot.
Give two reasons why blood clotting is important.
It prevents further blood loss from the wound.
The scab seals the wound, stopping microorganisms getting in.
How long does a scab stay in place?
Until new skin has grown underneath it, sealing the skin again.
Platelets cause soluble fibrinogen to be converted into insoluble ________.
Platelets cause soluble fibrinogen to be converted into insoluble fibrin.
The process by which a phagocyte engulfs and digests a pathogen is called ________.
The process by which a phagocyte engulfs and digests a pathogen is called phagocytosis.
True or False?
Platelets are whole cells.
False.
They are fragments of cells.
True or False?
White blood cells make up less than 1% of blood volume.
True.
Despite the small number, they are essential to the immune system.
Why are these defences described as non-specific?
They act in the same way against all types of pathogen, rather than targeting one.
Name the two kinds of non-specific defence.
Physical barriers and chemical barriers.
How does the skin defend the body against pathogens?
It covers the body, forming a barrier pathogens cannot easily cross.
If cut, it heals itself, often by forming a scab.
How do hairs and mucus in the nose defend the body?
They trap pathogens in the air, stopping them being breathed down into the lungs.
How do mucus and cilia in the airways work together?
Mucus traps pathogens in the trachea and bronchi.
Cilia waft the mucus up to the back of the throat, where it is swallowed or coughed out.
How does stomach acid defend the body?
It contains hydrochloric acid, strong enough to kill pathogens that are swallowed in food, drink or mucus.
What is the role of lysozymes in tears?
They are enzymes that break down and kill bacteria on the surface of the eye.
How does sebum on the skin help defend the body?
It kills bacterial and fungal pathogens on the skin surface.
How do the body's natural bacteria help protect against disease?
Harmless bacteria in the gut outcompete pathogenic bacteria, so the pathogens cannot establish themselves.
Why is a cut in the skin a risk of infection?
It breaks the physical barrier, giving pathogens a direct route into the body.
Classify stomach acid and skin as barriers.
Stomach acid is a chemical barrier.
Skin is a physical barrier.
________ in the trachea waft mucus and trapped pathogens up to the throat.
Cilia in the trachea waft mucus and trapped pathogens up to the throat.
Tears contain enzymes called ________ that kill bacteria on the eye.
Tears contain enzymes called lysozymes that kill bacteria on the eye.
True or False?
Non-specific defences target one particular pathogen.
False.
They work against all pathogens in the same way. Only the immune system is specific.
True or False?
Mucus is part of the body's non-specific defences.
True.
It traps pathogens in the airways before they can reach the lungs.
Define antigen.
A molecule found on the surface of a cell that the immune system can recognise as foreign.
Define antibody.
A Y-shaped protein made by lymphocytes, with a shape complementary to one specific antigen.
Define antitoxin.
A protein made by lymphocytes that neutralises the toxins released by bacteria.
Why is the lymphocyte response described as specific?
Each antibody fits only one type of antigen, so it acts against that pathogen alone.
Why is the phagocyte response described as non-specific?
Phagocytes engulf and digest any pathogen in the same way.
Define agglutination.
The clumping together of pathogens by antibodies, so they cannot move easily and are engulfed more readily.
Describe the immune response to a new pathogen.
A lymphocyte recognises the antigen and produces a specific antibody.
It clones itself so millions of copies make that antibody, which agglutinates the pathogens for phagocytes to destroy.
Why does a lymphocyte clone itself during an infection?
So that large quantities of the correct antibody can be produced quickly.
Define memory cell.
A lymphocyte that remains in the blood after an infection and recognises that pathogen if it returns.
Why is the second response to a pathogen faster?
Memory cells already recognise the antigen, so they make large amounts of the right antibody very quickly.
Why does someone not usually get the same disease twice?
The secondary response destroys the pathogen before it can multiply enough to cause symptoms.
How do antibodies help phagocytes work more effectively?
They clump the pathogens together and release chemicals that signal to phagocytes which cells to destroy.
Antibodies are produced by white blood cells called ________.
Antibodies are produced by white blood cells called lymphocytes.
The shape of an antibody is ________ to the antigen it acts against.
The shape of an antibody is complementary to the antigen it acts against.
True or False?
Antibodies and antibiotics are the same thing.
False.
Antibodies are proteins made by your own lymphocytes. Antibiotics are medicines that kill bacteria.
True or False?
One antibody can act against many different pathogens.
False.
Each antibody is specific to one antigen, so it works against only that pathogen.
Define vaccine.
A preparation containing a harmless version of a pathogen, or its antigens, used to induce immunity.
Give three ways a pathogen can be made harmless for a vaccine.
Killing it.
Making it unable to grow or divide.
Using only fragments that carry the antigens.
Explain how a vaccine makes someone immune.
The antigens in the vaccine trigger lymphocytes to make specific antibodies.
Memory cells remain, so a real infection meets a fast, large response.
Why does a vaccinated person not become ill on infection?
The response is so fast and large that the pathogen cannot multiply enough to cause symptoms.
How can a vaccine be given?
Orally, nasally, or by injection.
Define herd immunity.
When enough of a population is vaccinated that an unvaccinated person is unlikely to be infected.
Why does herd immunity matter?
It protects people who cannot be vaccinated, because the disease cannot spread easily through the population.
What happens to a disease if vaccination rates fall?
Cases rise again, as happened with measles when global vaccination rates dropped.
What are antibiotics used to treat?
Bacterial infections only. They do not work against viruses or fungi.
Name the first and best-known antibiotic.
Penicillin.
What do antiviral drugs do?
They act against viruses, usually by slowing the rate at which the virus reproduces.
Why is it difficult to develop antiviral drugs?
Viruses reproduce inside host cells, so damaging the virus risks damaging the body's own cells.
What is an antiseptic and where is it used?
A substance that kills microorganisms outside the body — on the skin to clean wounds, or on surfaces.
Why can an antiseptic not be taken as a medicine?
It would be toxic to the body's own cells.
Vaccinating a large proportion of a population produces ________ immunity.
Vaccinating a large proportion of a population produces herd immunity.
________ left in the blood after vaccination allow a fast response to future infection.
Memory cells left in the blood after vaccination allow a fast response to future infection.
True or False?
Antibiotics can be used to treat a viral infection such as flu.
False.
Antibiotics work only on bacteria. Viral infections need antiviral drugs.
True or False?
A vaccine contains a live, fully active pathogen.
False.
It contains a harmless version — killed, unable to divide, or just fragments carrying the antigens.
Where were drugs traditionally extracted from?
Plants and microorganisms.
Which plant does the heart drug digitalis come from?
The foxglove.
Which plant does the painkiller aspirin originate from?
Willow.
Where was penicillin discovered?
In the Penicillium mould, a fungus, by Alexander Fleming.
How are most new drugs found today?
They are synthesised by chemists, often using computer modelling to identify candidate molecules — though the starting point may still be a plant chemical.
What three things is a new drug tested for?
Toxicity — does it have harmful side effects?
Efficacy — does it work?
Dose — what is the lowest effective dose?
What happens during preclinical testing?
The drug is tested in the laboratory on cells and tissues, and then on live animals.
Why is a new drug tested on animals before humans?
To see its effect on a whole organism, including toxicity and dosage, before people are exposed to it.
Who takes part in clinical trials?
Healthy volunteers first, and then patients with the condition.
Why is a very low dose given at the start of a clinical trial?
To check the drug is safe in a normally functioning body before larger doses are tried.
Define placebo.
A treatment with no active drug in it, given for comparison during a trial.
What is a double-blind trial?
Neither the patient nor the doctor treating them knows who is receiving the active drug and who the placebo.
Why are double-blind trials used?
They remove bias, so a doctor cannot unintentionally influence a patient or the way results are judged.
What happens to trial results before they are published?
They are peer-reviewed, so other scientists check they are accurate, and then published in journals.
List the stages of drug development in order.
Preclinical testing on cells and tissues.
Testing on whole animals.
Clinical trials on healthy volunteers and then patients.
Testing whether a drug actually works is testing its ________.
Testing whether a drug actually works is testing its efficacy.
Testing on cells and tissues before any human trials is called ________ testing.
Testing on cells and tissues before any human trials is called preclinical testing.
True or False?
New drugs are tested on patients before healthy volunteers.
False.
Healthy volunteers are tested first, to check the drug is safe in a normally working body.
True or False?
Preclinical testing happens before any human trials.
True.
The drug is tested on cells, tissues and animals before clinical trials on people begin.
What causes most non-communicable diseases?
The interaction of a number of factors, rather than any single cause.
Name four groups of non-communicable disease.
Cardiovascular disease, many cancers, some lung diseases such as bronchitis, and some liver diseases such as cirrhosis.
Diseases influenced by nutrition, including type 2 diabetes, are a fifth.
What is cardiovascular disease?
Disease of the heart and its blood vessels.
How does coronary heart disease develop?
Fatty plaques build up in the coronary arteries, narrowing them and making them less elastic.
This restricts blood flow to the heart muscle.
What is the difference between angina and a heart attack?
Angina is chest pain from a partly blocked coronary artery.
A heart attack follows a complete blockage, so that part of the heart muscle cannot respire or contract.
Name four risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Smoking, a poor diet, lack of exercise and high alcohol consumption.
Why is a risk factor not the same as a cause?
It raises the likelihood of the disease but does not guarantee it — a correlation is not the same as causation.
Give a lifestyle treatment for cardiovascular disease.
Stopping smoking, eating less animal fat, and exercising regularly to lower blood pressure and cholesterol.
Give a medical treatment for cardiovascular disease.
Daily aspirin, which reduces the risk of blood clots forming in the arteries.
Describe angioplasty as a treatment.
A balloon is threaded to the blocked vessel and inflated, flattening the plaque.
A stent is left in place to hold the artery open.
Describe coronary bypass surgery.
A blood vessel taken from elsewhere in the body is used to create a new route for blood around the blocked section.
Give two drawbacks of a heart transplant.
Donor hearts are in short supply and can be rejected by the immune system.
The patient may need lifelong drugs that leave them prone to infection.
How do smoking and a fatty diet interact to raise risk?
Chemicals in smoke damage the arteries, and a diet high in saturated fat and cholesterol builds plaques in the damaged areas.
What causes obesity, and which diseases does it raise the risk of?
Taking in more energy than is used.
It raises the risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
Which lifestyle factor is linked to liver cirrhosis?
Alcohol consumption.
Which lifestyle factor is most linked to lung disease?
Smoking, along with air pollution and heavy dust exposure.
What is cancer?
The result of changes in cells that lead to uncontrolled growth and division, which can form a tumour.
Name two things that can trigger the mutations leading to cancer.
Carcinogens — cancer-causing chemicals — and radiation, such as UV light.
Why are cancer cells a burden on the body?
They have no useful function but still consume resources such as glucose and oxygen.
Why is lifestyle data collected at national and global level?
It shows how the incidence of non-communicable disease varies between places, which helps target health advice and policy.
Fatty deposits that build up in an artery wall are called ________.
Fatty deposits that build up in an artery wall are called plaques.
A clump of cells produced by uncontrolled cell division is called a ________.
A clump of cells produced by uncontrolled cell division is called a tumour.
True or False?
Smoking always causes cardiovascular disease.
False.
It is a risk factor: it greatly raises the likelihood, but does not guarantee the disease.
True or False?
Non-communicable diseases usually have a single cause.
False.
They result from a number of interacting factors.
How could stem cells be used to treat a damaged organ?
By growing new tissue from stem cells and using it to repair or replace the damaged part.
Why are embryonic stem cells so useful in medicine?
They can differentiate into most types of specialised cell, so they could replace many different tissues.
Name two conditions stem cells might be used to treat.
Diabetes and paralysis.
What is the limitation of using adult stem cells for treatment?
They can differentiate into only a few cell types, mainly blood cells.
Define rejection.
When the patient's immune system attacks transplanted tissue because it recognises it as foreign.
How can therapeutic cloning avoid rejection?
An embryo is created with the same genes as the patient, so the stem cells are not recognised as foreign.
Why is avoiding rejection such an advantage?
The patient does not need drugs to suppress their immune system, which would leave them open to infection.
Give the main ethical objection to using embryonic stem cells.
Many people regard an embryo as a human life, so destroying one to obtain stem cells is unacceptable to them.
Give a practical difficulty with embryonic stem cell treatment.
Eggs are hard to obtain — the donor must undergo hormone therapy and an operation to collect them.
Why might a patient prefer stem cell treatment to a transplant?
Tissue grown from their own genetic information would not be rejected, unlike a donor organ.
Give one risk of stem cell treatment other than ethical concerns.
The long-term effects are not fully known, as the technology is still relatively new.
In therapeutic cloning an embryo is produced with the same ________ as the patient.
In therapeutic cloning an embryo is produced with the same genes as the patient.
Transplanted tissue may be attacked by the immune system in a process called ________.
Transplanted tissue may be attacked by the immune system in a process called rejection.
True or False?
Stem cells from a patient's own genes would be rejected.
False.
They carry the same genes, so the immune system does not treat them as foreign.
True or False?
Adult stem cells raise the same ethical concerns as embryonic ones.
False.
Adult stem cells do not require an embryo, so the main ethical objection does not apply.
What was the Human Genome Project?
An international effort, completed in 2003, to determine the entire DNA sequence of the human genome.
Give three medical uses of knowing the human genome.
Predicting and preventing disease.
Testing and treating inherited disorders.
Developing new and improved medicines.
How can the genome be used to predict disease?
Knowing which genes make a person more likely to develop a disease allows doctors to warn them and advise on lifestyle and diet.
How does genome knowledge help with inherited disorders?
Faulty alleles, such as those causing cystic fibrosis, can be identified quickly, so people can be tested and treatments developed.
What are drugs targeted to genomes?
Medicines designed for people with particular genetic variations, so the drug works better and causes fewer side effects.
How can genome knowledge improve existing treatments?
Doctors can better predict how well a drug will work for a particular person, and choose an effective dose.
How could genetic testing harm a person's wellbeing?
Being told they are likely to develop a disease can cause anxiety and stress — possibly needlessly, as they may never develop it.
How might an employer misuse genetic information?
They might refuse to hire someone thought likely to become ill.
How might an insurer misuse genetic information?
They could make life insurance far more expensive, or refuse it altogether, for someone likely to develop a serious disease.
Give an ethical concern about genetic testing and having children.
People carrying a faulty allele could be pressured not to have children, even where they are healthy themselves.
Why is early identification of a genetic risk useful?
It allows early treatment or screening, and gives the person time to change their lifestyle.
Why should an answer on gene technology be balanced?
The spec asks you to weigh both benefits and risks, including practical and ethical considerations.
The ________ Project determined the entire DNA sequence of human beings.
The Human Genome Project determined the entire DNA sequence of human beings.
Being unfairly treated because of your genes is known as genetic ________.
Being unfairly treated because of your genes is known as genetic discrimination.
True or False?
Carrying a disease allele means you will definitely get the disease.
False.
It raises the likelihood only — many people carrying such an allele never develop the disease.
True or False?
Knowing the human genome can make medicines more effective.
True.
Drugs can be targeted to a person's genetic variations, improving how well they work and reducing side effects.
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