Biological Molecules (OCR A Level Biology): Flashcards

Exam code: H420

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  • Polar molecule

Cards in this collection (255)

  • Polar molecule

    A molecule with an uneven distribution of charge, giving it a slightly negative region and a slightly positive region.

  • Hydrogen bond

    A weak attraction between the slightly positive (δ+) region of one molecule and the slightly negative (δ−) region of another.

  • Specific heat capacity

    The amount of thermal energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 °C.

  • Why is water a polar molecule?

    The oxygen atom attracts the shared electrons more strongly than the hydrogen atoms, so the oxygen becomes slightly negative (δ−) and the hydrogens slightly positive (δ+).

  • Between which atoms do hydrogen bonds form in water?

    Between the slightly positive hydrogen atom of one water molecule and the slightly negative oxygen atom of a neighbouring water molecule.

  • Why is water a good solvent?

    It is polar, so ions and other polar molecules dissolve in it.

  • Explain why water has a high specific heat capacity.

    Its many hydrogen bonds require a large amount of energy to break, so a lot of energy is needed to raise water's temperature.

  • How does water's high specific heat capacity benefit living organisms?

    Its temperature stays relatively stable, providing stable aquatic habitats and helping organisms keep a constant internal temperature (e.g. so enzymes stay near their optimum).

  • Explain why water has a high latent heat of vaporisation.

    A large amount of energy is needed to break the hydrogen bonds between water molecules before water can evaporate.

  • How does water's high latent heat of vaporisation help organisms stay cool?

    Evaporating only a small amount of water (e.g. in sweat or transpiration) removes a large amount of heat, providing an efficient cooling effect.

  • How does cohesion between water molecules aid transport in plants?

    Hydrogen bonds hold water molecules together in a continuous column, so water can be pulled up through the xylem.

  • State four roles of water in living organisms that arise from its properties.

    Solvent (for reactions and transport), transport medium, coolant (via evaporation), and a habitat.

  • Hydrogen bonds form between the slightly positive hydrogen atom of one water molecule and the slightly negative atom of another.

    Hydrogen bonds form between the slightly positive hydrogen atom of one water molecule and the slightly negative oxygen atom of another.

  • Because water is a molecule, it can dissolve ions and other charged substances.

    Because water is a polar molecule, it can dissolve ions and other charged substances.

  • Why is water being a good solvent important in living organisms?

    It lets metabolic reactions take place in solution and lets dissolved substances be transported.

  • True or False: Water molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds.

    True

  • True or False: Water has a low specific heat capacity.

    False — water has a high specific heat capacity, because its many hydrogen bonds need a lot of energy to break.

  • Monomer

    A small unit that joins with others of its kind to build a larger molecule (a polymer).

  • Polymer

    A large molecule made of many identical or similar monomers joined together in a chain.

  • Condensation reaction

    A reaction that joins two molecules together by forming a chemical bond, releasing a molecule of water.

  • Hydrolysis reaction

    A reaction that breaks the chemical bond between two molecules by adding a molecule of water.

  • What is the difference between a condensation reaction and a hydrolysis reaction?

    A condensation reaction joins monomers and releases water; a hydrolysis reaction breaks bonds by adding water.

  • Give three examples of a polymer and its monomer.

    • Polysaccharide (e.g. starch) ← monosaccharides

    • Proteinamino acids

    • Nucleic acidnucleotides

  • Why are lipids NOT classed as polymers?

    They are not built from many identical repeating monomers joined into a chain — a triglyceride is just glycerol joined to fatty acids, not a repeating chain.

  • Which chemical elements do all carbohydrates contain?

    Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen (C, H, O).

  • Which chemical elements do all lipids contain?

    Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen (C, H, O) — but with a lower proportion of oxygen than carbohydrates.

  • Which chemical elements do all proteins contain?

    Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen (C, H, O, N); some proteins also contain sulfur (S).

  • Which chemical elements do all nucleic acids contain?

    Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus (C, H, O, N, P).

  • Why is carbon so important in biological molecules?

    Each carbon atom can form four stable covalent bonds and can join into straight chains, branched chains or rings, allowing a huge variety of molecules to form.

  • A reaction joins two monomers together and releases a molecule of water.

    A condensation reaction joins two monomers together and releases a molecule of water.

  • Proteins contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and , and some also contain sulfur.

    Proteins contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen, and some also contain sulfur.

  • True or False: All macromolecules are polymers.

    False — a polymer's subunits must be the same repeating units, so not all macromolecules are polymers.

  • True or False: In a hydrolysis reaction, water is added to break a covalent bond.

    True

  • Monosaccharide

    A single sugar unit — the monomer from which larger carbohydrates are built (e.g. glucose).

  • Hexose sugar

    A monosaccharide containing six carbon atoms (e.g. glucose).

  • Pentose sugar

    A monosaccharide containing five carbon atoms (e.g. ribose and deoxyribose).

  • Isomers

    Molecules with the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of atoms.

  • What is the molecular formula of glucose?

    C₆H₁₂O₆

  • State two properties of glucose that suit its role as an energy source.

    It is soluble, so it can be transported in water (e.g. blood); and it holds chemical energy that is released during respiration.

  • What is the structural difference between α-glucose and β-glucose?

    They are isomers (both C₆H₁₂O₆). On carbon 1, the hydroxyl (-OH) group points below the ring in α-glucose and above the ring in β-glucose.

  • What is the difference between a hexose and a pentose sugar?

    A hexose has six carbon atoms (e.g. glucose); a pentose has five carbon atoms (e.g. ribose).

  • Name the two pentose sugars found in nucleic acids.

    Ribose (in RNA) and deoxyribose (in DNA).

  • How do ribose and deoxyribose differ in structure?

    Deoxyribose has one fewer oxygen atom (at carbon 2).

  • Give three examples of monosaccharides.

    Glucose, fructose and galactose.

  • Why does it matter that glucose can exist as two isomers (α and β)?

    The two forms build different polysaccharides with different functions — α-glucose forms storage molecules (starch, glycogen) and β-glucose forms structural cellulose.

  • Glucose is a hexose sugar, meaning it contains carbon atoms.

    Glucose is a hexose sugar, meaning it contains six carbon atoms.

  • Ribose and deoxyribose are sugars, each containing five carbon atoms.

    Ribose and deoxyribose are pentose sugars, each containing five carbon atoms.

  • True or False: Glucose, fructose and galactose are all reducing sugars.

    True

  • True or False: Deoxyribose has one more oxygen atom than ribose.

    False — deoxyribose has one fewer oxygen atom (at carbon 2).

  • Glycosidic bond

    The covalent bond that links two monosaccharides together, formed between two hydroxyl (–OH) groups.

  • Disaccharide

    A carbohydrate made of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic bond.

  • How is a glycosidic bond formed?

    By a condensation reaction between two hydroxyl (–OH) groups on adjacent monosaccharides, which releases one molecule of water.

  • How is a glycosidic bond broken?

    By hydrolysis — a water molecule is added to break the bond (catalysed by an enzyme).

  • Which two monosaccharides make up maltose?

    Glucose + glucose.

  • Which two monosaccharides make up sucrose?

    Glucose + fructose.

  • Which two monosaccharides make up lactose?

    Glucose + galactose.

  • How many water molecules are released each time a glycosidic bond forms?

    One.

  • Why does a polysaccharide need many hydrolysis reactions to be fully broken down, whereas a disaccharide needs only one?

    A disaccharide has only one glycosidic bond, but a polysaccharide has many glycosidic bonds, and each one must be hydrolysed.

  • Give two examples of where hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds happens in organisms.

    Digestion of food in the gut, and the breakdown of stored carbohydrates (e.g. glycogen in muscle/liver) for respiration.

  • A glycosidic bond is formed by a reaction, which releases one molecule of water.

    A glycosidic bond is formed by a condensation reaction, which releases one molecule of water.

  • Sucrose is a disaccharide made from glucose and .

    Sucrose is a disaccharide made from glucose and fructose.

  • True or False: Forming a glycosidic bond removes one molecule of water.

    True

  • True or False: The enzymes that catalyse the hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds are the same as those used to form them by condensation.

    False — hydrolysis is catalysed by different enzymes from those used in condensation reactions.

  • Polysaccharide

    A polymer made of many monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic bonds.

  • Which two polysaccharides make up starch?

    Amylose and amylopectin.

  • Describe the structure of amylose.

    An unbranched, helix-shaped chain of α-glucose joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

  • Describe the structure of amylopectin.

    A branched chain of α-glucose with 1,4 glycosidic bonds along the chain and 1,6 glycosidic bonds at the branch points.

  • Describe the structure of glycogen.

    A highly branched polymer of α-glucose with 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds — similar to amylopectin but with many more branches.

  • Describe the structure of cellulose.

    Long, straight, unbranched chains of β-glucose joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds, with alternate glucose molecules rotated 180°.

  • Why are starch and glycogen good storage molecules?

    They are compact (so large amounts can be stored) and insoluble (so they have no osmotic effect on the cell).

  • How does branching in glycogen and amylopectin suit their storage function?

    Branches create many terminal (free) ends, so glucose can be added or removed quickly by condensation and hydrolysis to meet the cell's demands.

  • Why is glycogen especially suitable as a storage molecule in animals?

    It is more branched (so more compact) than starch, and its many free ends let glucose be released rapidly to meet the high respiration rate of active animals.

  • How does the structure of cellulose give it strength?

    Alternate β-glucose molecules are rotated 180°, so many hydrogen bonds form between parallel chains, bundling them into strong microfibrils.

  • How is cellulose suited to its function in plant cell walls?

    Its high tensile strength lets the cell wall resist turgor pressure and support the plant, and the fibres are freely permeable to water and solutes.

  • Where is starch stored in a plant cell?

    As granules inside plastids, such as amyloplasts and chloroplasts.

  • Cellulose is made of long, straight chains of -glucose joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

    Cellulose is made of long, straight chains of β-glucose joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

  • Starch is made of two polysaccharides: amylose and _.

    Starch is made of two polysaccharides: amylose and amylopectin.

  • True or False: Cellulose is made from α-glucose.

    False — cellulose is made from β-glucose.

  • True or False: Glycogen is more branched than amylopectin.

    True

  • Glycosidic bond

    A covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides in a condensation reaction.

  • Reducing sugar

    A sugar that can donate electrons (be oxidised) and so gives a positive Benedict's test without hydrolysis (e.g. glucose, fructose, maltose).

  • Non-reducing sugar

    A sugar that cannot donate electrons, so it must be hydrolysed before it will give a positive Benedict's test (e.g. sucrose).

  • Describe how to carry out the Benedict's test for a reducing sugar.

    Add an excess of (blue) Benedict's reagent to the sample and heat in a boiling water bath for a few minutes.

  • What colour change shows a positive Benedict's test for a reducing sugar?

    The blue solution changes through green, yellow and orange to a brick-red precipitate (the more sugar, the further towards brick-red).

  • Why is the Benedict's test described as semi-quantitative?

    The final colour gives an approximate indication of how much reducing sugar is present, without giving an exact concentration.

  • How do you test for a non-reducing sugar such as sucrose?

    First hydrolyse it by heating with dilute hydrochloric acid, then neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate, then carry out the Benedict's test as normal.

  • Why must a non-reducing sugar be hydrolysed before the Benedict's test?

    Hydrolysis breaks it into monosaccharides, which can donate electrons (reduce the copper), so a positive result can then form.

  • Why is the solution neutralised after hydrolysing a non-reducing sugar?

    The Benedict's test needs alkaline conditions to work, so the added acid must first be neutralised.

  • Describe the iodine test for starch and its positive result.

    Add a few drops of orange-brown iodine in potassium iodide solution to the sample. If starch is present, the colour changes to blue-black.

  • What result shows a negative Benedict's test (no reducing sugar)?

    The solution stays blue.

  • In a positive iodine test, the orange-brown iodine solution turns when starch is present.

    In a positive iodine test, the orange-brown iodine solution turns blue-black when starch is present.

  • Sucrose is a _-reducing sugar, so it must be hydrolysed before it gives a positive Benedict's test.

    Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar, so it must be hydrolysed before it gives a positive Benedict's test.

  • True or False: A non-reducing sugar such as sucrose gives a positive Benedict's test without any hydrolysis.

    False — it must first be hydrolysed into monosaccharides before it can give a positive result.

  • True or False: In the Benedict's test, a brick-red precipitate indicates a high concentration of reducing sugar.

    True

  • Triglyceride

    A lipid made of one glycerol molecule joined to three fatty acids by ester bonds.

  • Phospholipid

    A lipid made of a glycerol molecule joined to two fatty acids and a phosphate group.

  • Ester bond

    The covalent bond formed between a hydroxyl (-OH) group of glycerol and the carboxyl (-COOH) group of a fatty acid.

  • Saturated fatty acid

    A fatty acid whose hydrocarbon chain contains no carbon-carbon (C=C) double bonds.

  • Unsaturated fatty acid

    A fatty acid whose hydrocarbon chain contains one or more carbon-carbon (C=C) double bonds.

  • Which molecules make up a triglyceride?

    One glycerol molecule and three fatty acids.

  • How is a triglyceride formed?

    By three condensation reactions between glycerol and three fatty acids, forming three ester bonds and releasing three water molecules.

  • How many water molecules are released when one triglyceride forms?

    Three — one for each ester bond.

  • How is a triglyceride broken down?

    By hydrolysis — three water molecules are added to break the three ester bonds, releasing glycerol and three fatty acids.

  • How does the structure of a phospholipid differ from that of a triglyceride?

    In a phospholipid one of the three fatty acids is replaced by a phosphate group, so it has glycerol, two fatty acids and a phosphate group.

  • What is the difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid?

    A saturated fatty acid has no C=C double bonds; an unsaturated fatty acid has one or more C=C double bonds, which add kinks to the chain.

  • What is the difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid?

    A saturated fatty acid has no C=C double bonds; an unsaturated fatty acid has one or more C=C double bonds, which add kinks to the chain.

  • A triglyceride is formed from one glycerol molecule and three fatty acids joined by bonds.

    A triglyceride is formed from one glycerol molecule and three fatty acids joined by ester bonds.

  • An fatty acid contains one or more C=C double bonds in its hydrocarbon chain.

    An unsaturated fatty acid contains one or more C=C double bonds in its hydrocarbon chain.

  • True or False: A triglyceride contains three ester bonds.

    True

  • True or False: The formation of an ester bond is a hydrolysis reaction.

    False — it is a condensation reaction that releases water.

  • Cholesterol

    A lipid found in the cell membranes of eukaryotic cells that regulates membrane fluidity and is used to make steroid hormones.

  • Amphipathic

    Having both a hydrophilic (water-attracting) region and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) region — e.g. a phospholipid.

  • Why are triglycerides good energy stores?

    Their many carbon-hydrogen bonds release a large amount of energy when oxidised (about twice as much per gram as carbohydrate), and being hydrophobic they cause no osmotic water uptake, so large amounts can be stored.

  • Besides energy storage, give three functions of triglycerides in animals.

    Thermal insulation (adipose tissue under the skin), protection of organs, and buoyancy (low density aids floating). They also release metabolic water when respired.

  • Why is a phospholipid described as amphipathic?

    It has a hydrophilic (polar) phosphate head and two hydrophobic (non-polar) fatty acid tails.

  • How does the structure of phospholipids allow them to form a bilayer in water?

    The hydrophilic phosphate heads face the water while the hydrophobic tails point inwards away from water, forming a bilayer — the basis of cell membranes.

  • What is the function of the hydrophobic core of a phospholipid bilayer?

    It acts as a barrier to water-soluble (polar) molecules, helping control what enters and leaves the cell.

  • What is the role of cholesterol in a cell membrane?

    It sits between phospholipids and regulates membrane fluidity, making the membrane more rigid and less permeable to water-soluble substances.

  • Other than in membranes, what is cholesterol used for?

    To make steroid-based hormones such as oestrogen, testosterone and progesterone.

  • How does the proportion of saturated vs unsaturated fatty acid tails affect membrane fluidity?

    More unsaturated tails make the membrane more fluid; more saturated tails make it less fluid.

  • Phospholipids are , meaning they have both a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

    Phospholipids are amphipathic, meaning they have both a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

  • Cholesterol is used to make hormones such as oestrogen and testosterone.

    Cholesterol is used to make steroid hormones such as oestrogen and testosterone.

  • True or False: Triglycerides store more energy per gram than carbohydrates.

    True — they store about 37 kJ per gram compared with 17 kJ for carbohydrates, due to their many carbon-hydrogen bonds.

  • True or False: A phospholipid has three fatty acids bonded to glycerol.

    False — a phospholipid has only two fatty acids; the third position is replaced by a phosphate group.

  • Emulsion test

    The test for lipids: a sample is dissolved in ethanol and then mixed with water; a milky-white emulsion forms if lipid is present.

  • Describe how to carry out the emulsion test for lipids.

    Add ethanol to the sample and shake to dissolve any lipid, then pour the mixture into a test tube of water.

  • What is a positive result for the emulsion test?

    A milky-white emulsion forms; the more lipid present, the more obvious the milkiness.

  • What is a negative result for the emulsion test?

    The solution stays clear.

  • Why is ethanol used in the emulsion test?

    Lipids are insoluble in water but dissolve in ethanol; when the ethanol solution is added to water, the lipid comes out of solution as tiny droplets, forming the milky emulsion.

  • Is the emulsion test qualitative or quantitative?

    Qualitative — it shows whether lipid is present but not how much.

  • In a positive emulsion test, a milky-white forms when lipid is present.

    In a positive emulsion test, a milky-white emulsion forms when lipid is present.

  • Nonpolar

    Describes a molecule, such as a lipid, with no charge separation, so it does not dissolve in water but does dissolve in organic solvents like ethanol.

  • True or False: Lipids dissolve readily in water.

    False — lipids are nonpolar and do not dissolve in water, but they do dissolve in ethanol.

  • True or False: The emulsion test is a quantitative test.

    False — it is a qualitative test that shows whether lipid is present but not how much.

  • Amino acid

    The monomer of proteins: a molecule with a central carbon bonded to an amine group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom and an R group.

  • Peptide bond

    The covalent bond formed between two amino acids in a condensation reaction.

  • Dipeptide

    Two amino acids joined together by a peptide bond.

  • Polypeptide

    Many (three or more) amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.

  • Describe the general structure of an amino acid.

    A central carbon atom bonded to:

    • an amine group (-NH₂)

    • a carboxyl group (-COOH)

    • a hydrogen atom

    • a variable R group

  • What makes one amino acid different from another?

    The R group (side chain), which differs in each amino acid and gives it its particular properties.

  • How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?

    20.

  • How is a peptide bond formed?

    By a condensation reaction between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amine group of another, releasing a molecule of water.

  • How is a peptide bond broken?

    By hydrolysis — adding water breaks the peptide bond, releasing the individual amino acids.

  • Which groups form a peptide bond?

    The carboxyl (-COOH) group of one amino acid and the amine (-NH₂) group of another.

  • The part of an amino acid that varies and gives it its properties is the group.

    The part of an amino acid that varies and gives it its properties is the R group.

  • A peptide bond forms by a reaction between two amino acids, releasing water.

    A peptide bond forms by a condensation reaction between two amino acids, releasing water.

  • Which part of an amino acid is not involved in forming a peptide bond?

    The R group is not involved.

  • True or False: A peptide bond is a covalent bond.

    True

  • True or False: A peptide bond is broken by a condensation reaction.

    False — a peptide bond is broken by hydrolysis; condensation is how it forms.

  • Primary structure

    The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, joined by peptide bonds.

  • Secondary structure

    The folding of a polypeptide into α-helices and β-pleated sheets, held by hydrogen bonds between the amine and carboxyl groups of the backbone.

  • Tertiary structure

    The overall 3D folding of a polypeptide, held by bonds between R groups (hydrogen, ionic, disulfide bonds and hydrophobic interactions).

  • Quaternary structure

    The arrangement of two or more polypeptide chains (subunits) in a protein — e.g. haemoglobin.

  • What is the primary structure of a protein?

    The sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.

  • What are the two shapes found in the secondary structure of a protein?

    The α-helix and the β-pleated sheet.

  • Which four types of bond/interaction hold together the tertiary structure of a protein?

    Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bonds and hydrophobic interactions — all between R groups.

  • Where do hydrogen bonds form in secondary structure compared with tertiary structure?

    In secondary structure they form between the amine and carboxyl groups of the backbone; in tertiary structure they form between R groups.

  • What type of bond is a disulfide bond?

    A strong covalent bond.

  • Between what do ionic bonds form in a protein?

    Between oppositely charged R groups (e.g. -NH₃⁺ and -COO⁻).

  • Why does the primary structure determine a protein's final shape and function?

    The sequence of amino acids (and their R groups) determines which bonds and interactions form as the protein folds, giving the specific 3D shape needed for its function.

  • Disulfide bonds form between the R groups of two amino acids.

    Disulfide bonds form between the R groups of two cysteine amino acids.

  • A protein has a structure when it contains two or more polypeptide chains.

    A protein has a quaternary structure when it contains two or more polypeptide chains.

  • What determines the primary structure of a protein?

    The DNA (gene) that codes for the protein.

  • What holds the two shapes of secondary structure together?

    Hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl and amine groups of the polypeptide backbone.

  • Between which amino acids does a disulfide bond form?

    Between two cysteine R groups (cysteine is the only amino acid containing sulfur).

  • What breaks the ionic bonds in a protein?

    pH changes.

  • True or False: Peptide bonds join the amino acids in the primary structure of a protein.

    True

  • True or False: The hydrogen bonds in secondary structure form between the R groups of amino acids.

    False — in secondary structure hydrogen bonds form between the amine and carboxyl groups of the backbone; R-group bonds belong to tertiary structure.

  • Globular protein

    A compact, roughly spherical, water-soluble protein with a specific tertiary structure (e.g. enzymes, haemoglobin, insulin).

  • Conjugated protein

    A protein with a non-protein prosthetic group attached (e.g. haemoglobin with its haem group).

  • Prosthetic group

    A non-protein component permanently attached to a conjugated protein (e.g. the haem group in haemoglobin).

  • Why are globular proteins soluble in water?

    As they fold into their tertiary structure, hydrophilic R groups face outwards (interacting with water) and hydrophobic R groups face inwards, making the molecule soluble.

  • Why is the solubility of globular proteins important?

    It lets them be transported around organisms and take part in metabolic reactions.

  • Why is the specific shape of globular proteins important?

    It lets them carry out precise roles — e.g. enzymes catalysing specific reactions and antibodies binding specific antigens.

  • Describe the structure of haemoglobin.

    A globular protein with a quaternary structure: four polypeptide (globin) subunits — two α and two β — each with a haem prosthetic group containing an Fe²⁺ ion.

  • How does haemoglobin carry oxygen?

    Each of its four haem groups contains an Fe²⁺ ion that reversibly binds one oxygen molecule, so one haemoglobin molecule can carry four O₂ molecules.

  • Why is haemoglobin's solubility useful?

    Oxygen is not very soluble in water, so binding it to soluble haemoglobin allows much more oxygen to be transported in the blood.

  • Describe the structure of insulin.

    A globular protein hormone made of two polypeptide chains held together by disulfide bonds; it helps control blood glucose concentration.

  • Why are enzymes classed as globular proteins?

    They are soluble, roughly spherical proteins with a specific tertiary shape that forms an active site where the substrate binds.

  • Haemoglobin is a protein because it contains a non-protein haem prosthetic group.

    Haemoglobin is a conjugated protein because it contains a non-protein haem prosthetic group.

  • In globular proteins, hydrophilic R groups face , making the protein soluble in water.

    In globular proteins, hydrophilic R groups face outwards, making the protein soluble in water.

  • True or False: Each haemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen molecules.

    True

  • True or False: In globular proteins, the hydrophobic R groups face outwards.

    False — the hydrophobic R groups face inwards; the hydrophilic R groups face outwards.

  • Fibrous protein

    A long, insoluble protein with a highly repetitive amino acid sequence, suited to structural roles (e.g. collagen, keratin, elastin).

  • State three general properties of fibrous proteins.

    They are long and strand-like, insoluble in water, and strong, with a highly repetitive amino acid sequence.

  • Why are fibrous proteins insoluble in water?

    They have a large number of hydrophobic R groups.

  • What is the function of collagen?

    It provides structural support and strength in connective tissue — e.g. in tendons, ligaments, bone, skin and blood vessel walls.

  • What is the function of keratin?

    A tough structural protein that makes up hair, nails, horns and feathers.

  • What is the function of elastin?

    Found in connective tissue, it allows tissues to stretch and then recoil back to their original shape.

  • Give one key difference between globular and fibrous proteins.

    Globular proteins are soluble with metabolic/transport roles, whereas fibrous proteins are insoluble with structural roles.

  • Fibrous proteins are in water, which suits them to structural roles.

    Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water, which suits them to structural roles.

  • is the tough fibrous protein that makes up hair, nails and feathers.

    Keratin is the tough fibrous protein that makes up hair, nails and feathers.

  • True or False: Fibrous proteins have little or no tertiary structure.

    True

  • True or False: Collagen is soluble in water.

    False — collagen molecules are too long to dissolve, making it insoluble.

  • Why does collagen have great tensile strength?

    Its triple helix structure contains many hydrogen bonds, letting it withstand large pulling forces without stretching or breaking.

  • Inorganic ion

    A charged particle that does not contain carbon, involved in many essential cellular processes.

  • What does the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) determine?

    The pH of a solution.

  • State two roles of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) in the body.

    They stimulate muscle contraction and are needed for transmission of nerve impulses at synapses (they are also involved in blood clotting).

  • What is the role of sodium ions (Na⁺) in absorption?

    They are needed for the co-transport of glucose and amino acids across cell membranes (e.g. in the small intestine); they are also involved in nerve impulse transmission.

  • State a role of potassium ions (K⁺).

    Transmission of nerve impulses (repolarisation of the axon); they also help open the stomata in plants.

  • What is the role of nitrate ions (NO₃⁻) in plants?

    They provide a source of nitrogen for making amino acids/proteins and nucleotides, which are needed for growth.

  • How are ammonium ions (NH₄⁺) produced in the body?

    During the deamination of excess amino acids in the liver.

  • State a role of phosphate ions (PO₄³⁻).

    They are a component of DNA, RNA, ATP and phospholipids — e.g. allowing nucleotides to join and storing energy in ATP.

  • Which two ions are involved in transporting carbon dioxide in the blood?

    Hydrogencarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) and chloride ions (Cl⁻).

  • Give the chemical symbols for the calcium, phosphate, ammonium and nitrate ions.

    Calcium Ca²⁺, phosphate PO₄³⁻, ammonium NH₄⁺, nitrate NO₃⁻.

  • Give the chemical symbols for the sodium, potassium, chloride and hydrogencarbonate ions.

    Sodium Na⁺, potassium K⁺, chloride Cl⁻, hydrogencarbonate HCO₃⁻.

  • The concentration of ions (H⁺) determines the pH of a solution.

    The concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) determines the pH of a solution.

  • ions (PO₄³⁻) are a component of DNA, RNA, ATP and phospholipids.

    Phosphate ions (PO₄³⁻) are a component of DNA, RNA, ATP and phospholipids.

  • Why does the pH of a solution matter for enzyme-controlled reactions?

    pH affects enzyme activity — extreme pH can change an enzyme's structure and denature it.

  • True or False: There is an inverse relationship between hydrogen ion concentration and pH.

    True — the more H⁺ ions present, the lower the pH.

  • True or False: Nitrate ions provide plants with a source of phosphorus for protein synthesis.

    False — nitrate ions provide a source of nitrogen for protein synthesis.

  • Cofactor

    A non-protein chemical compound required for a protein to function; some inorganic ions act as cofactors.

  • Biuret test

    The test for proteins: sodium hydroxide is added, then copper(II) sulfate; a colour change from blue to lilac/purple shows protein (peptide bonds) is present.

  • Describe how to carry out the biuret test for proteins.

    Add sodium hydroxide solution to make the sample alkaline, then add a few drops of blue copper(II) sulfate solution and mix.

  • What is a positive result for the biuret test?

    The solution changes colour from blue to lilac/purple (mauve).

  • What does the biuret test actually detect?

    Peptide bonds — so the sample must contain at least two peptide bonds for a positive result.

  • What is a negative result for the biuret test?

    The solution stays blue.

  • Why might a sample containing only amino acids give a negative biuret result?

    The test detects peptide bonds; single amino acids (and dipeptides) do not have enough peptide bonds to give a positive result.

  • Is the biuret test qualitative or quantitative?

    Qualitative — it shows whether protein is present, not how much.

  • A positive biuret test produces a colour change from blue to , showing that protein is present.

    A positive biuret test produces a colour change from blue to purple, showing that protein is present.

  • True or False: In the biuret test, sodium hydroxide is added before the copper(II) sulfate solution.

    True — the sample is first made alkaline with sodium hydroxide, then copper(II) sulfate is added.

  • Why are observations for the biuret test made against a white tile?

    The colour change can be very subtle, so a white tile background makes it easier to see.

  • Colorimeter

    An instrument that measures how much light of a particular wavelength is absorbed by a coloured solution.

  • Serial dilution

    A stepwise series of dilutions of a stock solution, each of known concentration, used to create a set of standards.

  • Calibration curve (standard curve)

    A graph of a measured value (e.g. absorbance) against known concentrations, used to find the concentration of an unknown sample.

  • How can Benedict's test be made semi-quantitative to estimate the concentration of reducing sugar?

    Compare the sample's colour against a set of standard solutions of known reducing sugar concentration (made by serial dilution), all treated in exactly the same way.

  • What is a colorimeter used to measure?

    The absorbance (or transmission) of light through a coloured solution, giving a quantitative measure of colour intensity, which relates to concentration.

  • Why must a colorimeter be calibrated with a blank before use?

    To set the absorbance reading to zero, so the readings measure only the colour due to the sample.

  • How is a calibration curve used to find an unknown concentration?

    Plot absorbance against the known concentrations of the standards, then read the unknown sample's concentration off the curve using its measured absorbance.

  • Why is a colour filter used in a colorimeter?

    It selects the wavelength of light used, so a single known colour of light passes through the sample.

  • Why are serial dilutions of a stock solution prepared in this method?

    To create a set of standards of known, evenly decreasing concentrations, which an unknown sample can be compared against.

  • Give an alternative to waiting a fixed time in the semi-quantitative Benedict's method.

    Time how long it takes for the first colour change to occur — the higher the reducing sugar concentration, the shorter the time taken.

  • A _ measures the absorbance of light through a coloured solution to give a quantitative result.

    A colorimeter measures the absorbance of light through a coloured solution to give a quantitative result.

  • An unknown concentration is read from a _ curve of absorbance against known concentrations.

    An unknown concentration is read from a calibration curve of absorbance against known concentrations.

  • How is the colour of a colorimeter's filter chosen?

    Choose a colour that contrasts with (is complementary to) the solution so it is absorbed most — e.g. a blue filter for an orange solution.

  • True or False: an excess of Benedict's solution must be used in the semi-quantitative test.

    True

  • True or False: a higher reducing sugar concentration produces a green colour with Benedict's solution.

    False — a higher concentration gives a brick-red colour; green indicates a low concentration.

  • Chromatography

    A technique that separates a mixture into its individual components based on differences in their solubility.

  • Mobile phase

    In chromatography, the solvent that moves and carries the components of the mixture (e.g. water or ethanol).

  • Stationary phase

    In chromatography, the material that stays still while the solvent moves through it (e.g. the chromatography paper or TLC plate).

  • Rᶠ value

    The distance moved by a solute divided by the distance moved by the solvent; used to help identify a substance.

  • What is chromatography used for?

    To separate a mixture into its individual components — e.g. proteins, carbohydrates, vitamins and nucleic acids.

  • What property of the components does chromatography rely on to separate them?

    Differences in their solubility in the mobile phase (solvent).

  • Why do more soluble components travel further up the paper?

    They spend more time dissolved in the mobile phase, so they are carried further before the solvent stops moving.

  • State the equation for the Rᶠ value.

    Rᶠ = distance moved by the solute ÷ distance moved by the solvent

  • Why is an Rᶠ value always less than one?

    A solute cannot travel further than the solvent front, so the top of the fraction is always smaller than the bottom.

  • What does a small Rᶠ value tell you about a molecule?

    It is less soluble (and usually larger), so it travelled only a short distance up the paper.

  • How can you identify an unknown substance from a chromatogram?

    Compare its Rᶠ value (or the distance it travelled) with those of known standard substances run under the same conditions.

  • How can colourless spots (e.g. amino acids) be made visible on a chromatogram?

    By spraying the dried paper with a locating agent such as ninhydrin, which stains amino acids blue-violet.

  • What are the 'origin line' and the 'solvent front' on a chromatogram?

    The origin line is where the samples were spotted at the start; the solvent front is the furthest point the solvent reached.

  • The Rᶠ value is the distance moved by the solute divided by the distance moved by the .

    The Rᶠ value is the distance moved by the solute divided by the distance moved by the solvent.

  • Colourless amino acid spots can be made visible by spraying the chromatogram with .

    Colourless amino acid spots can be made visible by spraying the chromatogram with ninhydrin.

  • Why does an Rᶠ value have no units?

    It is a ratio of two distances, so the units cancel out.

  • True or False: an Rᶠ value can be greater than one.

    False — a solute cannot travel further than the solvent, so the Rᶠ value is always less than one.

  • True or False: in paper chromatography, the chromatography paper is the stationary phase.

    True

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