Manipulating Genomes (OCR A Level Biology): Flashcards

Exam code: H420

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  • What does DNA sequencing allow scientists to identify?

Cards in this collection (172)

  • What does DNA sequencing allow scientists to identify?

    The nucleotide base sequence of an organism's genetic material (DNA).

  • Chain termination method (Sanger sequencing)

    A method of DNA sequencing, developed by Frederick Sanger in the 1970s, that uses modified nucleotides called dideoxynucleotides to stop DNA replication and reveal the base sequence.

  • Dideoxynucleotide

    A modified nucleotide with a slightly different structure to the normal deoxynucleotides in DNA; when added to a developing strand it causes DNA polymerase to stop replicating, terminating the chain.

  • Why does the addition of a dideoxynucleotide terminate DNA replication?

    When DNA polymerase encounters a dideoxynucleotide, it can no longer add further nucleotides, so replication stops and a shortened DNA chain is produced.

  • What are the four test tubes set up for Sanger sequencing, and what do they contain?

    Each of the four test tubes contains:

    • The single-stranded DNA template to be sequenced

    • DNA polymerase

    • DNA primers

    • Free nucleotides A, C, T and G

    • One of the four types of dideoxynucleotide (A, C, T or G)

  • Describe the steps of the chain termination method once the test tubes are incubated.

    1. The primer anneals to the start of the single-stranded template, forming a short double-stranded section.

    1. DNA polymerase attaches and begins replication using the free nucleotides, with hydrogen bonds forming between complementary bases.

    1. At any point DNA polymerase may insert a dideoxynucleotide by chance, terminating that strand.

    1. Because insertion occurs at different points, complementary chains of varying lengths are produced.

  • Why does having only one type of dideoxynucleotide per test tube let researchers identify the terminal base of each fragment?

    Because each tube contains only one type of dideoxynucleotide, every chain in that tube must end in that base. For example, a tube containing A* produces fragments that all terminate in A.

  • How are the single-stranded DNA fragments separated in Sanger sequencing?

    By gel electrophoresis, according to length.

  • How is the base sequence read off the electrophoresis gel in Sanger sequencing?

    The gel has four wells (A, C, T, G). Reading the bands from the furthest-travelled upwards, each band's well identifies the next base, allowing the sequence to be built up one base at a time.

  • In Sanger sequencing, hydrogen bonds form between the bases of the nucleotides as DNA polymerase builds the developing strand.

    In Sanger sequencing, hydrogen bonds form between the complementary bases of the nucleotides as DNA polymerase builds the developing strand.

  • High-throughput sequencing

    A term describing multiple DNA sequencing technologies that allow the simultaneous sequencing of multiple DNA strands, making them rapid and able to produce large datasets very quickly.

  • How does capillary gel electrophoresis speed up the chain-termination technique?

    • Each type of dideoxynucleotide is labelled with a specific fluorescent dye

    • The single-stranded chains are separated by mass using electrophoresis inside a capillary tube

    • A laser beam illuminates the dideoxynucleotides and a detector reads the colour and position of each fluorescence

    • The detector feeds the data into a computer for storage or analysis

  • What are next-generation sequencing methods? Give two examples.

    The newest high-throughput sequencing methods, e.g. nanopore sequencing and pyrosequencing.

  • Give three fields of study that have benefited from the speed of high-throughput sequencing.

    • Evolutionary biology and classification

    • Personalised medicine

    • Disease diagnosis

  • In Sanger sequencing, what determines how far a DNA fragment travels through the gel?

    Its length — shorter fragments travel further, so a single-nucleotide fragment travels furthest and each band above represents one more base added.

  • How do next-generation sequencing methods differ from earlier high-throughput methods?

    They do not use electrophoresis, and most are automated rather than manually interpreted.

  • True or False: Each test tube in Sanger sequencing contains all four types of dideoxynucleotide.

    False — each tube contains only one type of dideoxynucleotide (A, C, T or G).

  • True or False: In gel electrophoresis, shorter DNA fragments travel further through the gel.

    True

  • Genome

    All of the genes within an organism.

  • Bioinformatics

    A field of biology that involves the storage, retrieval, and analysis of data from biological studies (such as data on DNA, RNA and protein sequences, and the relationship between genotype and phenotype).

  • How can a gene's DNA sequence be used to determine the structure of a protein?

    • The genetic code is used to predict the amino acid sequence within the protein

    • From the amino acid sequence, scientists can predict how the protein will fold into its tertiary structure

  • Why are high-power computers required in bioinformatics?

    They are needed to create and store the large databases that hold information about organisms' gene sequences and amino acid/protein sequences.

  • How does comparing genomes indicate how closely related two organisms are?

    Bioinformatics is used to compare an organism's genome with the genomes of others in databases. A greater degree of similarity between genomes indicates that the organisms are more closely related.

  • What is a model organism?

    An organism whose genome and biology can be studied to gain insight into humans or other species.

  • How is genetic variation within a species investigated using genome sequencing?

    The genomes of many individuals of the same species are sequenced and compared. A species with high genetic variation will show a large number of differences in base sequences between individuals.

  • How can genome comparisons reveal evolutionary relationships between species?

    The genomes of different species are compared. Species with a small number of differences between their genomes are likely to share a more recent common ancestor than species with a large number of differences.

  • The protein is involved in respiration and is found in a wide range of species, making it especially useful for comparisons between different species.

    The protein cytochrome c is involved in respiration and is found in a wide range of species, making it especially useful for comparisons between different species.

  • How are genotype-phenotype relationships explored using genome sequencing?

    Specific genes are "knocked out" (their expression is stopped) and the effect on the organism's phenotype is observed. Knowing the genome sequence allows scientists to target specific base sequences to knock out.

  • How is sequencing the genomes of pathogens useful in epidemiology?

    • Highly infectious strains can be identified (e.g. the Delta variant of SARS-CoV-2)

    • A pathogen's ability to infect multiple species can be investigated (e.g. Ebola infecting primates as well as humans)

    • The most appropriate control measures can be implemented

    • Potential antigens for use in vaccine production can be identified

  • Why is a reference genome created from the DNA of more than one individual?

    Any single organism may have anomalies/mutations in its DNA sequence that are atypical of the species. Using DNA from multiple individuals produces a reference genome that is representative of the species.

  • Why was the Human Genome Project publicly funded?

    Public funding meant there were no commercial interests or influence over the project.

  • Give an example of how information from the Human Genome Project has been applied to human health.

    Correlations have been found between changes in specific genes and the likelihood of developing certain inherited diseases. For example, mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes substantially increase the risk of breast cancer, and specific genes have been linked to Alzheimer's disease.

  • Give an example of a model organism used in genetic studies.

    The nematode worm Caenorhabditis elegans, used to study organ development, neurone development and cell death. It was the first multicellular organism to have its genome fully sequenced, and is useful because it has fewer than 1000 cells and is transparent.

  • Why was the data from the Human Genome Project made publicly available?

    Making the data publicly available meant it could be shared rapidly between researchers and used by anyone, maximising the benefit to humans.

  • True or False: A greater degree of similarity between two organisms' genomes indicates that they are more closely related.

    True

  • True or False: A reference genome is best created from the DNA of a single individual.

    False — it is created from the DNA of multiple individuals, so it is representative of the species and not skewed by one individual's anomalies.

  • Genome

    The complete set of genes (the entire DNA sequence) present within a cell or organism.

  • Proteome

    The full range of proteins that a cell or organism is able to produce.

  • Non-coding DNA

    Sections of DNA within the genome that do not code for proteins.

  • Why is it difficult to translate the genome of complex organisms into their proteome?

    Large amounts of non-coding DNA are present in the genome, and it is very hard to distinguish these non-coding sections from the coding DNA.

  • Besides non-coding DNA, which two features of human genomes affect gene expression and protein synthesis, making the proteome harder to determine?

    • The presence of regulatory genes\n\n- The process of alternative splicing

  • What is the role of regulatory genes in relation to the proteome?

    Regulatory genes control gene expression, and therefore influence which proteins are synthesised.

  • How does alternative splicing increase the number of proteins that can be made?

    It allows a single gene to be spliced in different ways, producing multiple different proteins from that one gene.

  • Explain why the proteome is larger than the genome.

    Two main reasons:\n\n- Alternative splicing, which allows a single gene to code for more than one protein\n\n- Post-translational modification of proteins, which produces different functional proteins after translation

  • Where in the cell does post-translational modification of proteins often take place?

    In the Golgi apparatus.

  • The proteome is than the genome, due to alternative splicing and post-translational modification of proteins.

    The proteome is larger than the genome, due to alternative splicing and post-translational modification of proteins.

  • splicing allows a single gene to produce multiple different proteins.

    Alternative splicing allows a single gene to produce multiple different proteins.

  • True or False: The proteome is larger than the genome.

    True — alternative splicing and post-translational modification let one gene give rise to more than one protein.

  • True or False: Post-translational modification of proteins often takes place in the nucleus.

    False — it often takes place in the Golgi apparatus.

  • Synthetic biology

    A recent area of research that aims to create new biological parts, devices and systems, or to redesign systems that already exist in nature.

  • How can knowledge of the genetic code be used to predict a protein's structure?

    The genetic code can be used to predict the amino acid sequence within a protein.\n\nOnce the amino acid sequence is known, scientists can predict how the new protein will fold into its tertiary structure.

  • How does synthetic biology go beyond genetic engineering?

    It involves large alterations to an organism's genome, rather than small changes.\n\nThis new genome can cause a cell to operate in a novel way, not yet seen before in nature.

  • In what two ways can the new genome in synthetic biology be assembled?

    • Using existing DNA sequences\n- Using entirely new sequences (designed and written with special computer programmes so that they produce specific proteins)

  • The most well-known use of synthetic biology is the commercial production of the antimalarial drug .

    The most well-known use of synthetic biology is the commercial production of the antimalarial drug artemisinin.

  • From which plant, and where, was artemisinin first isolated?

    Artemisinin was first isolated in China from the native plant Artemisia annua.

  • Why was the natural supply of artemisinin from Artemisia annua a problem?

    A. annua is difficult to cultivate.\n\nThis led to an unstable supply of artemisinin at an ever-changing price, often too expensive for those needing the drug most.

  • How did scientists use synthetic biology to produce artemisinin?

    • They constructed a DNA sequence for a whole new metabolic pathway containing genes from bacteria, yeast and *A. annua\n- This pathway produces artemisinic acid, a precursor to artemisinin\n- The pathway can be inserted into yeast cells, which then produce artemisinic acid\n- The precursor is then converted into artemisinin using an inexpensive process*

  • Artemisinic acid

    A precursor to artemisinin produced by the engineered metabolic pathway inserted into yeast cells; it is later converted into artemisinin using an inexpensive process.

  • Why is predicting a protein's tertiary structure from its amino acid sequence useful in synthetic biology?

    It allows scientists to design new DNA sequences that produce specific proteins, so that engineered cells can carry out desired functions such as producing useful drugs.

  • True or False: Synthetic biology can only assemble a new genome from existing DNA sequences.

    False — it can also use entirely new sequences, designed and written with special computer programmes.

  • True or False: Artemisinin is used as an antimalarial drug.

    True

  • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

    An in vitro method of DNA amplification used to produce large quantities of specific fragments of DNA (or RNA) from very small starting quantities.

  • What can PCR achieve from a very small starting sample of DNA or RNA?

    It can produce billions of identical copies of the DNA or RNA sample within a few hours, which can then be used for analysis.

  • Give two applications of PCR in gene technology.

    • DNA profiling (e.g. identifying criminals or determining paternity)

    • Genetic engineering

  • List the components required for a PCR reaction.

    • Target DNA (or RNA) to be amplified

    • Primers (forward and reverse)

    • DNA polymerase (usually Taq polymerase)

    • Free nucleotides

    • Buffer solution

  • Primers (in PCR)

    Short sequences of single-stranded DNA with base sequences complementary to the 3' end of the DNA being copied. They define the region to be amplified by telling DNA polymerase where to begin building the new strands.

  • Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR rather than other DNA polymerases?

    Taq polymerase comes from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, so:

    • It does not denature at the high temperature (95°C) used in the denaturation stage.

    • Its optimum temperature is high, which prevents annealing of DNA strands that have not yet been copied.

  • What is the role of free nucleotides in PCR?

    Free nucleotides are used to construct the new DNA (or RNA) strands.

  • What piece of equipment is used to carry out PCR, and what does it do?

    A thermal cycler, which automatically provides the optimal temperature for each stage and controls the length of time spent at each stage.

  • What are the three key stages of each PCR cycle?

    1. Denaturation

    1. Annealing

    1. Elongation / Extension

  • Describe what happens during the denaturation stage of PCR, including the temperature.

    The double-stranded DNA is heated to 95°C, which breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the two DNA strands together, separating them into single strands.

  • Describe what happens during the annealing stage of PCR, including the temperature.

    The temperature is decreased to between 50–60°C so that the forward and reverse primers can anneal to the ends of the single strands of DNA.

  • Describe what happens during the elongation/extension stage of PCR, including the temperature.

    The temperature is increased to 72°C (for at least a minute), the optimum temperature for Taq polymerase to build the complementary strands, producing new identical double-stranded DNA molecules.

  • In each PCR cycle the amount of DNA is , so a standard run of 20 cycles produces around a million DNA molecules.

    In each PCR cycle the amount of DNA is doubled, so a standard run of 20 cycles produces around a million DNA molecules.

  • What is the role of the buffer solution in PCR?

    The buffer solution provides the optimum pH for the reactions to occur.

  • True or False: Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it does not denature at the high temperatures used in the reaction.

    True — it comes from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, so it stays active at 95°C.

  • True or False: During the annealing stage of PCR the temperature is raised to 95°C.

    False — annealing occurs at 50–60°C; 95°C is used during the denaturation stage.

  • Gel electrophoresis

    A technique used widely in the analysis of DNA, RNA and proteins, in which molecules are separated according to their size/mass and their net charge.

  • On what two properties are molecules separated during gel electrophoresis?

    Molecules are separated according to:\n\n- Their size/mass\n\n- Their net charge

  • In an electric field, towards which electrode do positively charged and negatively charged molecules move?

    Positively charged molecules move towards the cathode (negative pole).\n\nNegatively charged molecules move towards the anode (positive pole).

  • Why is DNA negatively charged?

    DNA is negatively charged due to its phosphate groups.

  • How does molecule size affect the rate of movement through the gel during electrophoresis?

    The gel contains tiny pores, so:\n\n- Smaller molecules move quickly (further from the wells)\n\n- Larger molecules move slowly (remain closer to the wells)

  • The gel typically used for separating DNA fragments is , whereas polyacrylamide (PAG) is used for proteins.

    The gel typically used for separating DNA fragments is agarose, whereas polyacrylamide (PAG) is used for proteins.

  • Why does the type of gel used affect the separation of molecules in electrophoresis?

    Different gels have different sized pores, which affect the speed at which the molecules can move through them.

  • Describe the method used to separate DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis.

    1. Create an agarose gel plate in a tank, with wells cut into the gel at one end\n\n1. Submerge the gel in an electrolyte solution (a salt solution that conducts electricity)\n\n1. Load the DNA fragments into the wells using a micropipette\n\n1. Apply an electrical current, with the negative electrode connected to the end holding the wells so DNA moves towards the anode\n\n1. Smaller/shorter fragments move faster and further than larger fragments\n\n1. Transfer the fragments onto absorbent paper/nitrocellulose, add probes, then use an X-ray or UV light to produce a pattern of bands

  • Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)

    Regions found in the non-coding part of DNA that contain variable numbers of repeated DNA sequences and vary between different people (except identical twins). Also called 'satellite' or 'microsatellite' DNA.

  • What is the role of restriction endonucleases in preparing DNA for electrophoresis?

    Restriction endonucleases (enzymes) are used to cut the DNA into fragments.\n\nDifferent restriction enzymes cut at different base sequences, so scientists use enzymes that cut close to the VNTR regions.

  • Probes (in genetic profiling)

    Single-stranded DNA sequences that are complementary to the VNTR regions being sought. They carry a means of identification: either a radioactive label (which darkens X-ray film) or a fluorescent dye (which fluoresces under UV light).

  • How are proteins prepared for gel electrophoresis?

    Proteins are prepared by:\n\n- Denaturing them (to break the disulfide bonds)\n\n- Then manipulating them into rod shapes (which are negatively charged) to allow separation by size

  • Why are buffer solutions used during the separation of proteins by electrophoresis?

    The charge of the R groups of amino acids depends on the pH.\n\nBuffer solutions keep the pH constant, ensuring the proteins carry a consistent charge during separation.

  • Towards which electrode does DNA move during gel electrophoresis?

    DNA moves towards the anode (the positive pole), because it is negatively charged.

  • True or False: Smaller DNA fragments travel further through the gel than larger fragments.

    True

  • True or False: During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves towards the cathode.

    False — DNA is negatively charged, so it moves towards the anode (positive pole).

  • DNA profiling (genetic fingerprinting)

    A technique that produces an image of an individual's variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) as a pattern of bars, used to identify individuals — for example to identify suspects of a crime or to identify corpses. Every person (except identical twins) has a unique profile.

  • Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)

    Short, repeating regions of non-coding DNA (around 20 to 50 bases long). The number of VNTR regions is inherited from your biological parents, and the length of the VNTR regions is unique to each individual (except identical twins).

  • Why is an individual's DNA profile unique (apart from in identical twins)?

    Because the length of the VNTR regions is unique to each individual.

  • What feature of VNTRs is inherited from your biological parents?

    The number of VNTR regions is inherited from your biological parents.\n\nThis is why the more closely related two people are, the more likely their repeat patterns are to be similar.

  • Outline the steps used to create a DNA profile from a sample.

    • Obtain the DNA (e.g. from the root of a hair, a spot of blood, semen or saliva)\n\n- Amplify the DNA using PCR to produce large quantities from a very small sample\n\n- Cut the amplified DNA into fragments using restriction endonucleases (which cut close to specific VNTR sequences)\n\n- Separate the fragments by length using gel electrophoresis\n\n- Add radioactive or fluorescent probes that are complementary to, and bind to, specific VNTR regions\n\n- Produce X-ray images (radioactive probes) or use UV light (fluorescent probes) to reveal the pattern of bars\n\n- Analyse the resulting pattern of bars (the DNA profile)

  • Why is PCR used when creating a DNA profile?

    To amplify the DNA — it produces large quantities of the required DNA fragment from very small samples (even from just one molecule of DNA or RNA).

  • What is the role of restriction endonucleases in DNA profiling?

    They cut the amplified DNA into fragments. Different restriction endonucleases cut close to different VNTR sequences.

  • What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in DNA profiling?

    It separates the DNA fragments according to their length/size, so that the VNTRs (which are unique to each person except identical twins) can be compared.

  • Radioactive or fluorescent are added; these are complementary to, and bind to, specific VNTR regions.

    Radioactive or fluorescent probes are added; these are complementary to, and bind to, specific VNTR regions.

  • How do you interpret genetic fingerprints to match a suspect to a crime scene?

    Look for the profile with the most bands in common with the crime scene sample.

  • How is DNA profiling used in forensic medicine and criminal investigations?

    • Samples of body cells or fluids (e.g. blood, saliva, hair, semen) are taken from the crime scene or victim\n\n- The DNA is extracted and profiled\n\n- The profile is compared with samples from the suspect (or a criminal DNA database), the victim, and control samples from people unconnected to the crime\n\n- Care must be taken to avoid contamination of samples\n\n- It can also identify bodies or body parts that are otherwise unidentifiable (e.g. badly decomposed remains)

  • Give three uses of DNA profiling other than identifying suspects in criminal investigations.

    • Identifying individuals at risk of developing particular diseases (certain VNTR sequences are associated with diseases such as cancers and heart disease)\n\n- Determining familial relationships, e.g. paternity cases or immigration cases\n\n- Species conservation — supporting captive breeding programmes to reduce the chance of inbreeding

  • How do you interpret genetic fingerprints to identify a child's parents?

    Look for the combination of the parents' bands that together cover all of the child's bands.

  • True or False: The number of VNTR repeats is inherited from your biological parents.

    True

  • True or False: DNA profiling analyses the coding regions of DNA.

    False — DNA profiling analyses non-coding regions (the VNTRs).

  • Genetic engineering

    The manipulation of the DNA sequences of an organism.

  • Which key feature of the genetic code makes genetic engineering possible, and what does it mean?

    The genetic code is universal.

    This means almost every organism uses the same four nitrogenous bases – A, T, C and G (with a few exceptions).

  • Why can genetic information be transferred between different species?

    The same codons code for the same amino acids in all living things.

    This means that genetic information is transferable between species.

  • Recombinant DNA (rDNA)

    Altered DNA that has had nucleotides from a different source introduced into it (typically a different species).

  • Transgenic organism

    An organism that contains nucleotide sequences from a different species.

  • Genetically modified organism (GMO)

    Any organism that has had genetic material introduced into it.

  • How do scientists artificially change an organism's DNA?

    By combining lengths of nucleotides from different sources (typically from different species).

    The altered DNA produced is called recombinant DNA (rDNA).

  • Why can transferred DNA be translated within the cells of a genetically modified organism?

    The mechanisms of transcription and translation are also universal.

    This means the transferred DNA can be transcribed and translated within the cells of the GMO.

  • If an organism contains nucleotide sequences from a different species it is called a organism.

    If an organism contains nucleotide sequences from a different species it is called a transgenic organism.

  • What is recombinant DNA technology?

    A form of genetic engineering that involves the transfer of fragments of DNA from one organism/species into another.

    The resulting organism contains recombinant DNA and is a genetically modified organism (GMO).

  • Synthetic biology

    A field of science that studies the design and construction of new biological pathways, organisms and devices, as well as the redesigning of existing natural biological systems.

  • Give three key uses of genetic engineering.

    • Genetic modification of crops to increase yield through resistance to drought, disease, pesticides and herbicides, or to increase nutritional value (e.g. golden rice)

    • Genetic modification of livestock to give disease and pest resistance and increased productivity

    • Genetic modification of bacteria to produce medicines (e.g. insulin), decompose toxic pollutants or carry out large-scale chemical production

  • True or False: The genetic code is universal, meaning almost every organism uses the same four bases A, T, C and G.

    True

  • True or False: A transgenic organism contains nucleotide sequences only from its own species.

    False — a transgenic organism contains nucleotide sequences from a different species.

  • Outline the five main steps involved in genetically engineering an organism.

    • Identification of the DNA fragment or gene

    • Isolation of the desired DNA fragment (using restriction enzymes, a gene machine or reverse transcriptase)

    • Multiplication of the DNA fragment (using the polymerase chain reaction, PCR)

    • Transfer into the organism using a vector

    • Identification of the cells that have taken up the new DNA fragment (using a marker), which are then cloned

  • Restriction endonuclease

    An enzyme used to cut genes (DNA) at specific base sequences known as restriction sites. Different restriction enzymes cut at different restriction sites.

  • Ligase

    An enzyme used to join together the cut ends of DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds.

  • Reverse transcriptase

    An enzyme used to build double-stranded DNA from a single-stranded RNA template.

  • Vector (in genetic engineering)

    A carrier used to deliver DNA fragments into a cell. Examples include plasmids, viruses and liposomes.

  • Name three types of vector used to transfer DNA into cells, and state what each transfers DNA into.

    • Plasmids - transfer DNA into bacteria or yeast

    • Viruses - transfer DNA into human cells or bacteria

    • Liposomes - fuse with cell membranes to transfer DNA into cells

  • How can restriction enzymes, a gene machine or reverse transcriptase be used to isolate the desired DNA fragment?

    They are the three methods used to obtain (isolate) the desired gene:

    • Restriction enzymes cut the gene out of DNA at specific restriction sites

    • A gene machine synthesises the gene artificially

    • Reverse transcriptase builds double-stranded DNA from an mRNA template

  • What is electroporation used for in genetic engineering?

    It is used to encourage the uptake of plasmid vectors into cells, by making the cell membrane more permeable to the plasmid DNA.

  • Marker gene

    A gene that codes for an identifiable substance that can be tracked, used to identify cells that have successfully taken up the new DNA fragment.

  • Describe three types of marker used to identify successfully transformed cells.

    • Fluorescent markers e.g. green fluorescent protein (GFP), which fluoresces under UV light

    • Enzyme markers e.g. β-glucuronidase (GUS), which transforms colourless or non-fluorescent substrates into coloured or fluorescent products

    • Antibiotic resistance markers - the required gene is inserted into an antibiotic resistance gene

  • Explain how an antibiotic resistance marker gene is used to identify successfully transformed bacteria.

    The required gene sequence is inserted into a gene for antibiotic resistance, which inactivates that resistance gene.

    This means successfully transformed bacteria will be killed if exposed to the antibiotic.

    A replica plating method is therefore used to identify and isolate the successfully transformed bacteria.

  • Which enzyme joins DNA fragments together, and how does it do so?

    Ligase joins together the cut ends of DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds.

  • The DNA fragment is multiplied using the (PCR) before being transferred into the organism.

    The DNA fragment is multiplied using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) before being transferred into the organism.

  • fuse with cell membranes to transfer DNA into cells.

    Liposomes fuse with cell membranes to transfer DNA into cells.

  • True or False: Restriction endonucleases join the cut ends of DNA fragments together.

    False — restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific restriction sites; ligase joins the cut ends by forming phosphodiester bonds.

  • True or False: Electroporation is used to encourage the uptake of plasmid vectors into cells.

    True

  • Patent (in genetic engineering)

    A legal right that gives the owner the ability to prevent others from replicating their invention (e.g. a genetic modification) for a limited period of time.

  • Which types of organism are used to produce recombinant proteins?

    Microorganisms such as bacteria, yeast, or animal cells.

    They are used for research and for treatments (e.g. diabetes, cancer, infectious diseases, haemophilia).

  • Why are most recombinant human proteins produced using eukaryotic cells (e.g. yeast or animal cells) rather than prokaryotic cells?

    Eukaryotic cells carry out the post-translational modification required to produce a suitable human protein.

    This is because they possess the Golgi apparatus and/or the necessary enzymes, which prokaryotic cells lack.

  • State the advantages of genetically engineering microorganisms to produce recombinant human proteins.

    • More cost-effective to produce large volumes (unlimited availability)

    • Simpler and faster to produce many proteins

    • A reliable supply is available

    • Proteins can be engineered to be identical to human proteins or given beneficial modifications

    • Avoids moral, ethical or religious concerns about using cow- or pork-derived proteins

  • In 1982, was the first recombinant human protein to be approved for use, in the treatment of diabetes.

    In 1982, insulin was the first recombinant human protein to be approved for use, in the treatment of diabetes.

  • Outline how genetically modified bacteria are produced to make human insulin.

    • Restriction endonucleases cut open bacterial plasmids and DNA ligase splices the human insulin gene into the plasmid

    • The recombinant plasmids are inserted into Escherichia coli by transformation (calcium ion bath, then heat or electric shock)

    • Transgenic bacteria are identified using markers, then isolated, purified and placed in fermenters with optimal conditions

    • The bacteria multiply by binary fission and express insulin, which is extracted and purified

  • Give the advantages of using recombinant (genetically engineered) insulin over animal-extracted insulin.

    • Identical to human insulin, unless deliberately modified (e.g. to act faster or more slowly)

    • A reliable supply to meet demand, without depending on meat stock

    • Fewer ethical, moral or religious concerns (not extracted from cows or pigs)

    • Fewer rejection problems, side effects or allergic reactions

    • Cheaper to produce in large volumes

    • Useful for people with animal insulin tolerance

  • What are the benefits of using genetic engineering rather than traditional selective breeding to meet the global demand for food?

    • Organisms with the desired characteristics are produced more quickly

    • All organisms will contain the desired characteristic (no chance of a recessive allele arising in the population)

    • The desired characteristic can come from a different species/kingdom

  • In what ways have crop plants been genetically modified, and what does each achieve?

    • Resistant to herbicides – increases productivity / yield

    • Resistant to pests – increases productivity / yield

    • Enriched in vitamins – increases nutritional value (e.g. rice modified to produce β-carotene for vitamin A)

  • How does inserting the Bt toxin gene protect GM soya plants from insect pests?

    The Bt toxin gene, taken from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, causes the soya plant to produce its own insecticide.

    When an insect ingests the plant, the alkaline conditions in its gut activate the toxin, killing the insect. The toxin is harmless to vertebrates because their stomachs are highly acidic.

  • Pharming

    The genetic modification of livestock (e.g. "biopharm" sheep and goats) to produce useful human proteins, typically secreted in their milk — for example the human blood protein AAT in sheep's milk, or antithrombin in goat's milk.

  • How was GM (AquAdvantage) salmon engineered to grow more rapidly?

    A growth hormone gene from a chinook salmon was combined with a promoter gene from an ocean pout (a cold-water fish).

    The promoter keeps the growth hormone continually expressed throughout the year (not just in spring/summer), so the salmon reaches market size in half the time, increasing yield.

  • Why are adenoviruses genetically modified for use as vectors in gene therapy?

    They are not cell-specific or species-specific, so they can infect the cells of many mammals.

    Specific genes are removed so the virus cannot replicate inside host cells, which also creates space for the insertion of desired genes.

  • Outline the main arguments against the use of GMOs.

    • GM seeds are more expensive and do not "breed true", so farmers must rebuy seeds yearly — a struggle in developing countries

    • Lack of long-term research on effects on human health (e.g. allergies, toxicity); without labelling, consumer choice is removed

    • Pollen may contaminate nearby non-GM/organic crops

    • Reduced biodiversity and risk of GM crops becoming weeds or "superweeds" via herbicide-resistance gene transfer

    • Antibiotic-resistance marker genes could transfer to pathogens, creating a "superbug"

    • Tampering with viral genomes could create a novel or more harmful virus

  • How are the microorganisms used to produce recombinant proteins grown?

    They are grown in culture.

  • How is GM (AquAdvantage) salmon prevented from reproducing in the wild?

    All the salmon are female and sterile.

  • True or False: Prokaryotic cells are preferred over eukaryotic cells for producing most recombinant human proteins.

    False — eukaryotic cells are preferred because they carry out the post-translational modification needed for a functional human protein.

  • True or False: The Bt toxin is harmless to vertebrates because their stomachs are highly acidic.

    True

  • Gene therapy

    The use of various mechanisms to alter a person's genetic material in order to treat, or cure, diseases.

  • What three things might gene therapy be able to do to a faulty gene?

    • Replace a faulty gene

    • Inactivate a faulty gene

    • Insert a new gene

  • Why are most gene therapies still in the clinical trial stage?

    Scientists are having difficulty:

    • Finding delivery systems that can transfer normal alleles into a person's cells

    • Ensuring the gene is correctly expressed once it is inside the cells

  • Vector (in gene therapy)

    The delivery system used to transfer genetic material (a normal allele) into a person's cells.

  • Why are viruses (e.g. retroviruses and lentiviruses) the most commonly used vectors in gene therapy?

    They already have the mechanisms needed to recognise cells and deliver genetic material into them.

  • Examples of non-viral vectors being researched for gene therapy include liposomes and DNA.

    Examples of non-viral vectors being researched for gene therapy include liposomes and 'naked' DNA.

  • Why will somatic (body cell) gene therapy not be inherited by future generations?

    Changes in genetic material are targeted to specific body cells and do not target the gametes (germ cells), so the changes cannot be passed on.

    The effects on somatic cells are also often short-lived.

  • Distinguish between ex vivo and in vivo somatic gene therapy.

    Ex vivo – the new gene is inserted via a virus vector into the cell outside the body. Blood or bone marrow cells are extracted, exposed to the virus, grown in the laboratory and returned to the person by injection into a vein.

    In vivo – the new gene is inserted via a vector into cells inside the body.

  • Why is gene therapy on germ cells (gametes or an early embryo) illegal in humans?

    Any changes made to the genetic material of germ cells are potentially permanent and could therefore be inherited by future generations.

  • What causes severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

    The body's inability to produce adenosine deaminase (ADA), an enzyme key to the functioning of the immune system.

    Without this enzyme, children can die from common infections and often need to be kept isolated in plastic 'bubbles'.

  • Describe how ex vivo somatic gene therapy is used to treat SCID.

    A virus transfers a normal allele for ADA into T-lymphocytes removed from the patient, and the cells are then returned to the patient via an injection.

  • Why is ex vivo gene therapy not a permanent cure for SCID?

    The treated T-lymphocytes are replaced by the body over time, so the patient requires regular transfusions (every three to five months) to keep their immune system functioning.

  • Why did early SCID treatments using retroviruses as vectors cause problems?

    Retroviruses insert their genes randomly into the host's genome. This means the gene could be inserted into another gene or a regulatory sequence, which could result in cancer.

    Initial treatments caused cases of leukaemia in children, so researchers switched to lentiviruses or adeno-associated viruses.

  • How does gene therapy using in vivo methods treat Leber congenital amaurosis?

    Doctors inject adeno-associated viruses containing the normal alleles of one of the genes that damages the photoreceptors directly into the retina.

    Patients who have had the injections have shown an improvement in their eyesight.

  • True or False: Somatic (body cell) gene therapy can be inherited by future generations.

    False — somatic gene therapy targets body cells, not the gametes, so the changes cannot be inherited.

  • True or False: Adeno-associated viruses insert their genes into the host's genome.

    Falseadeno-associated viruses do not insert their genes into the host genome, so the genes are not passed on to daughter cells during cell division.

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