Cloning & Biotechnology (OCR A Level Biology): Flashcards

Exam code: H420

1/210

0Still learning

Know0

Cards in this collection (210)

  • Vegetative reproduction

    A form of asexual reproduction in plants that uses meristem cells to produce new individuals that are genetically identical clones of the parent.

  • Plantlet

    A young, miniature plant that forms naturally at a vegetative organ of the parent plant and remains attached until mature. It is a clone of its parent.

  • Give three vegetative organs of a plant where plantlets may form.

    • Root and shoot tips

    • Axillary buds (where leaves meet the stem)

    • Vascular cambium (between xylem and phloem)

  • Why are plantlets produced by vegetative reproduction genetically identical to the parent plant?

    They are produced by asexual reproduction using the parent's meristem cells, so no other DNA is introduced. This makes them clones of the parent.

  • When can a plantlet detach from its parent and live independently?

    At maturity, once it is capable of photosynthesising by itself and is therefore self-sustaining.

  • Explain why producing clones by vegetative reproduction is useful for growers.

    • The new plants all have the same phenotype, so the crop is uniform

    • This makes growing and harvesting easier

    • Plants that are hard to grow from seed (e.g. orchids) can still be propagated

  • Runner (stolon)

    A horizontal stem that grows over the soil surface, producing a new plant far enough from the parent that it is not overshadowed or in competition for water and soil nutrients.

  • Adventitious roots

    Roots that form under the nodes of a runner, anchoring the new plantlet. The runner dies once the plantlet is self-sustaining.

  • Give three plants that reproduce asexually using runners.

    • Strawberries

    • Peppermint

    • Spider plants

  • All modes of vegetative propagation contain that can generate meristematic tissue.

    All modes of vegetative propagation contain modified stems that can generate meristematic tissue.

  • How does a potato tuber allow a new plant to grow?

    • Tubers are swollen modified structures that form eyes on their surface

    • The eyes sprout new growth (called 'chitting')

    • Starch stored in the tuber fuels the early growth of the new plant

  • Rhizome

    A modified stem that grows horizontally underground (e.g. ginger). New stems and adventitious roots grow from its nodes.

  • Suckers

    Growths that appear from the root systems of trees and shrubs, providing meristematic tissue (e.g. poplars, cherries, plums).

  • Why do gardeners and horticulturalists use vegetative propagation to reproduce desirable species?

    It allows them to propagate desirable species asexually, effectively and at less cost than using sexual reproduction techniques, e.g. by taking cuttings and dividing plants into clumps or sections.

  • Offsets

    Small, virtually complete daughter plants produced asexually on the mother plant (e.g. tulips, lilies).

  • True or False: Vegetative reproduction introduces DNA from a second parent plant.

    False — no other DNA is introduced, so the offspring are genetically identical clones.

  • True or False: Onions and garlic form bulbs that grow adventitious roots underground and leafy shoots above ground.

    True

  • What is a cutting as a method of plant propagation?

    A section of stem cut from a parent plant that is encouraged to grow adventitious roots, developing into a new, full-sized plant.

    It is a straightforward propagation technique that can expand plant stock at very low cost.

  • Adventitious roots

    Roots that grow from an unusual position on the plant, such as from a cut stem, rather than from an existing root system.

  • Which types of plant can readily grow adventitious roots from cut stems for use in cuttings?

    Many perennials, shrubs and herbs can grow adventitious roots from their cut stems.

  • Why are the desirable characteristics of the parent plant guaranteed in plants grown from cuttings?

    Because propagation by cuttings is a form of asexual reproduction, the offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

    This means the desirable characteristics of the parent are guaranteed in the progeny.

  • Give two advantages of propagating plants using cuttings.

    • Desirable characteristics of the parent are guaranteed because it is asexual reproduction

    • Plant stock can be expanded at very low cost

    • Cuttings grow to full-sized plants much quicker than plants grown from seeds

  • Cuttings grow to full-sized plants much than plants grown from seeds.

    Cuttings grow to full-sized plants much quicker than plants grown from seeds.

  • List the equipment needed to take a plant cutting.

    • Sharp scissors or secateurs

    • Potting compost

    • Pots to house the new plants

    • Hormone rooting powder

    • Plastic bag to cover the cutting

  • What does hormone rooting powder contain?

    Hormone rooting powder contains auxins.

  • Hormone rooting powder contains that promote mitosis and cell differentiation in new root growth.

    Hormone rooting powder contains auxins that promote mitosis and cell differentiation in new root growth.

  • Why should the cut on a cutting be made just below a stem node?

    If the cut is made just below a stem node, meristem tissue forms at the lower end of the cut.

    This tissue can divide and differentiate to produce the new adventitious roots.

  • Meristem tissue

    Tissue containing unspecialised cells capable of dividing by mitosis; in a cutting it forms at the lower end of the cut and gives rise to new root growth.

  • Why is a cutting covered with a plastic bag after planting?

    Covering the cutting with a plastic bag reduces water loss by transpiration, keeping the cutting in a humid environment while it establishes new roots.

  • What is the role of the auxins in hormone rooting powder?

    The auxins promote mitosis and cell differentiation in the new root growth.

  • True or False: Plants grown from cuttings are genetically identical to the parent plant.

    True

  • True or False: Cuttings grow to full-sized plants more slowly than plants grown from seeds.

    False — cuttings grow to full size much quicker than plants grown from seeds.

  • Cultivar

    A strain of genetically identical plants (a clone) produced artificially, which can endure as foodstuffs or commercial blooms for many years.

  • Explant

    A small piece of a plant that is cut off and grown into a new clone of the original plant.

  • Totipotency

    The ability of a cell to divide and differentiate into all the different cell types that make up a complete organism. Many plant cells are totipotent, unlike animal cells.

  • How do gardeners and horticulturalists produce artificial clones of plants?

    They harness the natural processes of vegetative reproduction, using techniques such as:

    • Cuttings

    • Layering

    • Grafting

    • Division

    • Budding

  • What do all methods of vegetative (artificial) cloning rely on?

    The formation of meristematic tissue, from which plant organs can differentiate.

  • Many plant cells are , meaning an entire plant can be reproduced from any one of these cells.

    Many plant cells are totipotent, meaning an entire plant can be reproduced from any one of these cells.

  • Why is cauliflower used to demonstrate totipotency through tissue culture?

    Because it is comprised mostly of actively dividing cells and can withstand being handled.

  • Why must the explant be disinfected and aseptic techniques used during micropropagation?

    To avoid fungi from colonising the growth medium, which would cause the micropropagation to fail (fungal growth would be seen rather than explant growth).

  • Describe the key steps to produce a cauliflower clone from an explant.

    • Break off a small floret of cauliflower and use a scalpel to cut a thin section (about 5–10 mm long) — this is the explant

    • Sterilise the explant by soaking it in sterilising solution for 15 minutes, swirling it every 5 minutes

    • Use sterilised forceps to transfer the explant onto agar growth medium containing a sterilant

    • Leave the container on a sunny windowsill for around 3 weeks

  • What is the purpose of the agar growth medium in cauliflower micropropagation?

    It provides all the nutrients the plant needs for growth, and contains a sterilant to ensure no contamination occurs throughout the experiment.

  • What does successfully growing a complete cauliflower clone from an explant demonstrate?

    That the cells in the explant have the capability to produce all the different cell types that make up a full cauliflower plant — i.e. they are totipotent.

  • Give two practical uses of micropropagation and tissue culture of plants.

    • Reproducing endangered species of plants where relatively little source material exists

    • Producing clones in large numbers for distribution to commercial growers and garden centres

  • True or False: Many plant cells are totipotent, whereas mature animal cells are not.

    True

  • True or False: Aseptic techniques are used during micropropagation to encourage fungal growth on the medium.

    False — they prevent fungi from colonising the growth medium, which would otherwise cause the micropropagation to fail.

  • Why do all plants produced by plant cloning have the same phenotype?

    Because they all have the same genotype, so they show the same characteristics (phenotype).

  • State three advantages of producing plants by cloning.

    Any three of:

    • The plants are free of disease

    • They can be genetically modified to confer immunity to certain diseases

    • The process is rapid and yields large numbers of new plants

    • The small plants can be transported easily to other sites

    • Plants that are difficult to grow from seed can be produced

  • How does genetic modification benefit growers who use plant cloning?

    It allows growers to ensure that plants carry very distinct characteristics, and it can confer immunity to certain diseases.

  • Explain how plant cloning can help conserve biodiversity.

    Rare and endangered species can be propagated by cloning to save them from extinction.

  • Why is plant cloning useful for year-round, worldwide crop production?

    Cloned plants can be grown in any country, in any season, so production is not limited by climate or growing season.

  • Whole plants can be created from genetically modified .

    Whole plants can be created from genetically modified cells/tissues.

  • Cultivar

    A plant variety produced by selective breeding or cloning that has distinct, uniform and desirable characteristics.

  • How does the use of cultivars in plant cloning improve product uniformity?

    It prevents the risk of F₁ hybrids that occur when plants are crossed and grown from seeds, so the products are more uniform.

  • State two economic/practical disadvantages of plant cloning.

    • It is an expensive process

    • It is labour-intensive

    • The process is susceptible to microbial contamination

  • Why does a lack of genetic variation make cloned crops risky?

    With no genetic variation, all offspring are susceptible to the same diseases or environmental factors.

    This risks large-scale loss of a country's or continent's crop, so growing a range of cultivars is recommended.

  • Why must new plants produced by cloning be carefully screened?

    They must be screened for abnormalities that could lead to the new plants being infected.

  • What risk is associated with unexpected secondary metabolic reactions in cloned explants?

    An unexpected secondary metabolic reaction could cause stunted growth or even death in the new explants.

  • Explant

    A small piece of tissue or cells taken from a parent plant and used to grow a new, genetically identical plant in tissue culture.

  • True or False: Plants produced by plant cloning are free of disease.

    True

  • True or False: Plant cloning produces offspring with high genetic variation.

    False — cloned plants have no genetic variation, so all offspring are susceptible to the same diseases.

  • Is asexual reproduction more or less common in animals compared with plants?

    Asexual reproduction is much less common in animals than in plants.

  • Parthenogenesis

    A form of asexual reproduction in which offspring develop from an unfertilised egg, producing natural clones (e.g. in aphids).

  • What are the two naturally occurring ways cloning can arise in animals?

    • Parthenogenesis (asexual reproduction, e.g. in aphids)

    • The formation of identical twins

  • Monozygotic twins

    Identical twins that develop from a single zygote which splits at the embryo stage, giving offspring with the same genotype.

  • Describe how identical (monozygotic) twins are formed.

    An egg is fertilised by a sperm, forming a zygote.

    The single zygote undergoes a few cell cycles (mitotic divisions) to become an embryo.

    At the embryo stage, the embryo splits in two.

    The two identical embryos develop in utero together, producing identical offspring.

  • Why are identical twins described as 'monozygotic'?

    Because they both develop from a single zygote that splits at the embryo stage, rather than from two separate zygotes.

  • What features do identical twins share as a result of coming from the same zygote?

    They have the same genotype, the same gender, and an identical phenotype.

  • Why are non-identical (dizygotic) twins not considered clones?

    Because they are formed from separate eggs and sperm, so they do not share the same genotype.

  • Explain why identical twins are not true clones by the time they are born.

    Mutations occur with every cell cycle.

    This means that from the moment the embryo splits, Twin A gradually accumulates slightly different DNA base sequences to Twin B.

    By birth, their genomes already differ slightly, and they become more dissimilar as they age.

  • Identical twins share the same genome only until the point at which the splits into two.

    Identical twins share the same genome only until the point at which the embryo splits into two.

  • is a form of asexual reproduction seen in some small animals such as aphids.

    Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction seen in some small animals such as aphids.

  • True or False: Asexual reproduction is more common in animals than in plants.

    False — asexual reproduction is much less common in animals than in plants.

  • True or False: Identical twins develop from a single zygote that splits at the embryo stage.

    True

  • In embryo twinning, what is the genetic relationship between the offspring produced?

    The offspring are clones of each other but not clones of their parents.

  • Describe how artificial clones are produced by embryo twinning.

    • An early embryo is deliberately divided into two half embryos (or into single identical cells)

    • Each half embryo (or cell) is inserted into a surrogate mother

    • The surrogate carries the embryo through gestation and gives birth to genetically identical twins

  • Why has embryo twinning been used as a routine procedure in livestock farming since the 1980s?

    To boost yields of livestock and to promote desirable characteristics in the offspring.

  • Give one limitation of embryo twinning as a cloning method.

    Although it guarantees desirable characteristics, it is not possible to predict how many offspring will be produced.

  • Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)

    A method of reproductive cloning in which the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell is transferred into an enucleated egg cell, which is then stimulated to develop into an embryo that is a clone of the nucleus donor.

  • Which animal was the first livestock animal created by reproductive cloning, and when?

    Dolly the sheep, cloned in Edinburgh, UK, in 1996.

  • Which three animals are required to produce a clone by Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)?

    • The animal to be cloned, which donates a somatic cell

    • The female that donates an egg cell

    • The surrogate mother

  • Describe the steps involved in reproductive cloning by Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT).

    • The animal to be cloned donates a somatic (body) cell, e.g. from the udder

    • An egg cell is extracted from the egg donor and enucleated (its nucleus is removed by suction and discarded)

    • The nucleus from the somatic cell is injected into the enucleated egg cell

    • The hybrid cell is treated to encourage it to divide by mitosis

    • The embryo is implanted into the surrogate mother for gestation and birth

  • In SCNT, the egg cell taken from the donor is , meaning its nucleus is removed and discarded before the somatic nucleus is injected.

    In SCNT, the egg cell taken from the donor is enucleated, meaning its nucleus is removed and discarded before the somatic nucleus is injected.

  • Therapeutic cloning

    A technique in which cloned cells are used to replace dead or damaged cells that cause a loss of function in an individual, rather than to produce a whole new organism.

  • How does therapeutic cloning make use of a cloned embryo to treat disease?

    • An embryo is cloned as in reproductive cloning, then removed and subdivided

    • Each embryo cell is a totipotent stem cell that can be cultured and artificially differentiated into any specialised cell type

    • This produces specialised cells with the same genome as the sufferer, which can replace their damaged cells

  • Give an example of a condition that therapeutic cloning could potentially treat.

    It could be used to replace specialised brain tissue in sufferers of Parkinson's Disease.

  • In therapeutic cloning, each individual embryo cell is a stem cell, able to be differentiated into any type of specialised cell.

    In therapeutic cloning, each individual embryo cell is a totipotent stem cell, able to be differentiated into any type of specialised cell.

  • Comment on the current clinical status of therapeutic cloning.

    There is currently a lot of potential for therapeutic cloning, but so far little clinical progress has been made.

  • True or False: In Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT), the resulting embryo is a clone of the egg-cell donor.

    False — the embryo is a clone of the somatic-cell (nucleus) donor, not the egg-cell donor.

  • Give one agricultural argument in favour of animal cloning.

    Animals with desirable characteristics (e.g. high milk yield in cattle) can be cloned, ideal for maximising agricultural output.

  • How can animal cloning affect the gene pool in a way similar to selective breeding?

    It can remove less desirable characteristics from the gene pool over time, much as selective breeding has done.

  • How can animal cloning help conservation?

    It can help preserve endangered species, ahead of possible reintroduction of those species to the wild.

  • How might animal cloning benefit patients with degenerative disease?

    It can provide regenerated organs for the patient.

  • Why are cloned regenerated organs advantageous for a patient with degenerative disease?

    Because such organs are a direct genome match to the patient, there is no risk of rejection by the immune system.

  • Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)

    The cloning process used to produce animal clones; it is very hit-and-miss, e.g. it took hundreds of unsuccessful attempts to clone Dolly the sheep.

  • Why is the reliability of somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) an argument against animal cloning?

    The process is very hit-and-miss:

    • It took hundreds of unsuccessful attempts to clone Dolly the sheep

    • There are unknown long-term effects of the cloning process

  • What health problems have been observed in cloned animals?

    • A high number of early deaths

    • Genetic abnormalities

    • Abnormally large growth (Large Organ Syndrome)

    • Abnormalities in large organs (e.g. kidneys) or in the immune system

  • Large Organ Syndrome (LOS)

    A condition in which some surviving cloned animals grow abnormally large, which can cause breathing and circulatory problems in adult animals.

  • What does research suggest is the underlying reason cloned animals develop abnormalities?

    Cloning appears to disrupt the normal regulation of gene expression. No precise 'cause and effect' has yet been ascribed to the cloning process.

  • On what ethical grounds do groups such as Pro-Life oppose animal cloning?

    Cloning destroys embryos which could, in theory, develop into a healthy adult animal.

  • Embryo cloning is well accepted and in the field of livestock farming.

    Embryo cloning is well accepted and noncontroversial in the field of livestock farming.

  • Why has animal cloning not gathered as much pace as many scientists once predicted?

    Because of the many problems associated with it — the hit-and-miss nature of SCNT, high early death rates, genetic abnormalities, Large Organ Syndrome, and ethical objections to the destruction of embryos.

  • True or False: regenerated organs cloned from a patient's own cells carry no risk of immune rejection.

    True

  • True or False: somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a highly reliable cloning process.

    False — SCNT is very hit-and-miss, e.g. it took hundreds of attempts to clone Dolly the sheep.

  • Biotechnology

    The use (harnessing) of the processes carried out by living organisms to produce useful products or to carry out useful services.

  • Give two broad ways in which biotechnology is useful to humans.

    • To produce useful products, such as foods and medicines

    • To carry out useful services, such as sewage treatment, composting and bioremediation

  • Name three useful services that biotechnological processes can carry out.

    • Sewage treatment

    • Composting

    • Bioremediation

  • Why are microorganisms the most useful group of organisms for carrying out biotechnological processes?

    Because they:

    • Have simple growth requirements

    • Use food that is cheap and readily available

    • Occupy very little space

    • Reproduce quickly and have short life cycles

    • Do not have non-productive tissues and organs

    • Can be grown on an industrial scale

  • Explain why the reproduction rate and life cycle of microorganisms make them suited to biotechnology.

    Microorganisms reproduce quickly and have short life cycles, so large populations (and therefore large amounts of the useful product) can be generated rapidly.

  • Why is it an advantage that microorganisms do not have non-productive tissues and organs?

    Resources are not wasted maintaining structures that do not contribute to making the useful product, making the process more efficient and economically favourable.

  • Because microorganisms have simple growth requirements, occupy little space and reproduce quickly, there are many advantages to using them in biotechnology.

    Because microorganisms have simple growth requirements, occupy little space and reproduce quickly, there are many economic advantages to using them in biotechnology.

  • State four emerging uses of biotechnology identified by research.

    • Production of biofuels (to replace fossil fuels)

    • Production of vaccines and antibodies to treat disease

    • Production of hardy crop plants that can grow in arid conditions

    • Counteracting threats from bioterrorism or bio-warfare

  • How could biotechnology help address the reliance on fossil fuels?

    Through the production of biofuels, which can replace the use of fossil fuels.

  • Give an emerging biotechnology use that could help agriculture in dry regions.

    The production of hardy crop plants that can grow in arid (dry) conditions.

  • True or False: Microorganisms are the most useful group of organisms for carrying out biotechnological processes.

    True

  • True or False: Microorganisms cannot be grown on an industrial scale.

    False — microorganisms can be grown on an industrial scale to perform useful duties.

  • For what two purposes are microorganisms used in biotechnology relating to food production?

    To make:\n\n- Human food\n\n- Animal feed

  • Why is there an increasing need to use microorganisms for food production?

    The human population is growing quickly, so there is a need for ever-more productive methods of food production.

  • Microorganisms have a rapid , meaning food can be produced very quickly compared with rearing animals or growing crops.

    Microorganisms have a rapid growth rate, meaning food can be produced very quickly compared with rearing animals or growing crops.

  • Give three advantages of using microorganisms to make food.

    • Rapid growth rate (short generation time), so food is produced quickly\n\n- Production is not dependent on climate, weather or season\n\n- Microorganisms can be grown on waste materials as a cheap substrate

  • State two further advantages of producing food from microorganisms, relating to the product itself.

    • The product is often high in protein and low in fat, making it a healthy food source\n\n- There are no animal welfare concerns, and it can be suitable for vegetarians

  • Explain why maintaining sterile (aseptic) conditions is a disadvantage of using microorganisms to make food.

    Conditions ideal for growing the desired microorganism also favour contaminating microorganisms.\n\nBecause microorganisms grow rapidly, any contamination spreads quickly and can spoil the product or produce toxins, so strict aseptic conditions must be maintained.

  • Other than contamination risk, give two disadvantages of using microorganisms to make food.

    • The protein usually has to be isolated and purified from the growth medium\n\n- Some people may find food grown on waste unappealing, and the product may lack the taste or texture of traditional foods

  • Why is biotechnology using microorganisms considered a compelling way to meet future food demand?

    It offers a fast, productive and scalable method of producing both human food and animal feed, helping to meet the demands of a rapidly growing population without relying on climate or large areas of farmland.

  • Why can microorganisms make food production more space- and resource-efficient than traditional farming?

    Microorganisms can be grown in fermenters in a relatively small space, independent of land quality or climate, and can use waste products as their substrate, so they require less land and fewer resources than rearing livestock or growing crops.

  • Fermenter

    A large sterile vessel used to culture microorganisms on an industrial scale under carefully controlled conditions.

  • True or False: Producing food from microorganisms is heavily dependent on climate, weather and season.

    False — production is not dependent on climate, weather or season.

  • True or False: Food produced from microorganisms is often high in protein and low in fat.

    True

  • Aseptic technique

    A set of procedures used when culturing microorganisms to ensure the microbes being investigated do not escape and are not contaminated by other unwanted, possibly pathogenic, microbes.

  • Why are aseptic techniques essential when investigating the effect of antimicrobial substances on microbial growth?

    They ensure that:

    • The microbes being investigated do not escape

    • The culture does not become contaminated with another unwanted, and possibly pathogenic, microbe

  • Give four general aseptic techniques used when culturing microorganisms.

    Any four of:

    • Washing hands thoroughly

    • No food or drink allowed in the lab

    • Disinfecting work surfaces with disinfectant or alcohol

    • Wearing gloves and goggles

    • Working close to a lit Bunsen burner

    • Flaming equipment

    • Sterilising (in an autoclave) or disposing of all used equipment

  • Why is it useful to work close to a lit Bunsen burner when using aseptic technique?

    The flame creates an updraught of air, which prevents contamination of the culture by airborne microbes (such as fungal spores).

  • After taking a sample and before replacing the plug, the neck of the culture tube should be to kill any microorganisms present.

    After taking a sample and before replacing the plug, the neck of the culture tube should be flamed to kill any microorganisms present.

  • Outline the main steps used to prepare an uncontaminated culture of microorganisms on an agar plate.

    • Pour sterile agar into the petri dish, cover with the lid and leave to cool

    • Sterilise the inoculating loop in the Bunsen burner flame

    • Remove the plug and flame the neck of the culture tube

    • Take a sample from the culture tube using the inoculating loop

    • Flame the neck of the culture tube again before replacing the plug

    • Gently wipe the loop on the surface of the agar

    • Sterilise the loop again, then tape the lid and incubate

  • Colony-forming unit (CFU)

    A live bacterial cell that is able to divide and form a colony on an agar plate.

  • What is the disc diffusion method used for?

    It is used to test the efficacy of different antibiotics (or antiseptics), and is commonly used to test for antibiotic resistance in bacteria. Its advantage is that multiple antibiotics can be tested at once.

  • Describe the method for a disc diffusion investigation into antibiotic effectiveness.

    • Pre-soak paper discs in the different antibiotic solutions

    • Spread a sample of diluted bacterial broth over the surface of a sterile agar plate

    • Lightly press the paper discs onto the agar, evenly distributed and not touching each other or the edges

    • Incubate the plate overnight at an optimum temperature

    • Examine the results with the petri dish lid on

  • In a disc diffusion experiment, why must all the antibiotic solutions be at the same concentration?

    So that the effects of the different antibiotics can be fairly compared, ensuring any difference in the clear zones is due to the antibiotic itself rather than differences in concentration.

  • Why does a clear zone form around a paper disc in a disc diffusion experiment?

    The antibiotic diffuses outwards from the disc, forming a concentration gradient (most concentrated at the disc). Where the bacteria are susceptible to the antibiotic, no bacteria grow, producing a clear zone. The zone ends where the antibiotic concentration falls too low to affect the bacteria.

  • In a disc diffusion experiment, how can you tell which antibiotic is the most effective?

    The most effective antibiotics need a lower concentration to kill bacteria, so they produce the largest clear zones.

  • In a disc diffusion experiment, how can you tell which antibiotic the bacteria are resistant to?

    If the bacteria are completely resistant to an antibiotic, there is no clear zone around that disc.

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

    The lowest concentration of a substance (e.g. an antibiotic) that will inhibit the growth of a microorganism.

  • True or False: Working close to a lit Bunsen burner creates an updraught of air that helps prevent contamination of a culture.

    True

  • True or False: In the disc diffusion method, the antibiotic the bacteria are most resistant to produces the largest clear zone.

    False — bacteria that are resistant produce no clear zone; the largest clear zone shows the most effective antibiotic.

  • Fermentation (industrial)

    The culturing of microorganisms under controlled conditions in a fermenter to produce a useful product.

  • What are the two possible types of product from industrial fermentation? Give an example of each.

    • The microorganism itself, e.g. mycoprotein

    • A product made by the microorganism, e.g. insulin

  • What are the two main methods used to culture microorganisms by fermentation?

    • Batch fermentation

    • Continuous fermentation

  • Batch fermentation

    A method in which microorganisms are grown in batches in the fermentation vessel; once the culture cycle is complete the product is removed, the fermenter is cleaned, and a new batch is grown.

  • Why is batch fermentation described as a 'closed culture'?

    Because the microorganisms are grown as a single, self-contained batch: nothing is added or removed during the culture cycle, and once complete the whole product is harvested before a new batch is started.

  • Continuous fermentation

    A method in which microorganisms are continually grown and the products harvested, with nutrients added and waste removed throughout the culturing process.

  • How does continuous fermentation differ from batch fermentation in terms of adding nutrients and removing products?

    In continuous fermentation, nutrients are added and products/waste are removed continuously throughout the process while growth continues.

    In batch fermentation, nothing is added or removed during the cycle; the product is only harvested at the end before the fermenter is cleaned and restarted.

  • In batch fermentation, once the culture cycle is complete the product is removed, the fermenter is , and a new batch of microorganisms is grown.

    In batch fermentation, once the culture cycle is complete the product is removed, the fermenter is cleaned, and a new batch of microorganisms is grown.

  • Why must conditions in a fermenter be carefully monitored and controlled?

    To keep conditions optimum so that the growth and productivity of the microorganisms are maximised, giving the greatest yield of the required product.

  • Which conditions inside a fermenter are monitored and controlled to optimise microorganism productivity?

    • pH

    • Temperature

    • Oxygen availability

    • Nutrient supply

    • Agitation (mixing)

    • Contamination

    • Waste removal

  • Why is agitation (stirring) of the culture important in a fermenter?

    It keeps the microorganisms evenly distributed and ensures even access to nutrients, oxygen and temperature throughout the vessel, maintaining optimum conditions for growth.

  • Why is preventing contamination important during fermentation?

    Unwanted microorganisms would compete with the culture for nutrients and space and could reduce the yield or spoil the product, so the fermenter is kept sterile.

  • True or False: Batch fermentation is an example of a closed culture.

    True — microorganisms are grown as a single self-contained batch, with nothing added or removed during the cycle.

  • True or False: In batch fermentation, nutrients are added and waste is removed continuously throughout the culturing process.

    False — that describes continuous fermentation; in batch fermentation nothing is added or removed during the cycle.

  • What are the three methods used to measure populations of microorganisms such as bacteria?

    • Direct counting

    • Viable counting

    • Turbidity

  • Direct counting

    A method of measuring a microorganism population that counts all individual cells in a sample, including both living and dead cells.

  • Viable counting

    A method of measuring a microorganism population that involves culturing samples and counting the colonies that grow, so only living cells are taken into account.

  • Turbidity

    A measure of the cloudiness of a suspension (how much light can pass through it), taken as an absorbance reading using a colorimeter. It reflects both living and dead microorganisms in solution.

  • Explain how turbidity can be used to estimate the population size of microorganisms in a broth culture.

    As the microorganisms reproduce and the population grows, the suspension becomes progressively more turbid (cloudy).

    Measuring how much light passes through the suspension at fixed time intervals after inoculation allows the changing turbidity, and therefore the population size, to be estimated.

  • Which pieces of apparatus can be used to measure the turbidity of a broth culture?

    • A turbidity meter

    • A light sensor

    • A colorimeter (connected to a datalogger)

  • What are the four phases of the standard population growth curve of a microorganism, in order?

    1. Lag phase

    1. Log (exponential) phase

    1. Stationary phase

    1. Decline (death) phase

  • Describe what happens during the lag phase of the growth curve.

    The population size increases slowly as the microorganism population adjusts to its new environment and gradually starts to reproduce.

  • Why does the population grow exponentially during the log phase?

    There is a high availability of nutrients and plenty of space, so the population moves into exponential growth, doubling at each division.

  • Why does a population of microorganisms reach a stationary phase?

    The population reaches its maximum because it is limited by resources, such as a lack of nutrients or a build-up of toxic substances.

  • During the decline phase, the death rate the reproduction rate, due to a lack of nutrients and a build-up of toxic substances.

    During the decline phase, the death rate exceeds the reproduction rate, due to a lack of nutrients and a build-up of toxic substances.

  • Binary fission

    The process of asexual reproduction in bacteria in which one cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each containing a single copy of the circular DNA molecule and a variable number of plasmids.

  • Describe the process of binary fission in bacteria.

    • The single, circular DNA molecule undergoes DNA replication

    • Any plasmids present also replicate

    • The parent cell divides into two cells, with the cytoplasm roughly halved between them

    • Each daughter cell contains a single copy of the circular DNA molecule and a variable number of plasmids

  • State the equation used to calculate the number of bacteria produced by binary fission, and define each term.

    N = N₀ × 2ⁿ

    • N = the final number of bacteria

    • N₀ = the initial number of bacteria

    • n = the number of divisions

  • Why are logarithmic scales useful when plotting the growth of bacterial populations?

    Bacterial numbers cover a very wide range of very small and very large values, which is difficult to display on a traditional linear scale.

    A logarithmic scale allows this wide range of values to fit onto a single graph. Log scales can be identified by their uneven intervals between values on an axis.

  • What is happening to the cells during the stationary phase?

    The number of microorganisms dying equals the number being reproduced by binary fission, so the population size stays constant.

  • True or False: Viable counting takes both living and dead cells into account.

    False — viable counting only counts living cells, as it relies on colonies growing from the cultured sample.

  • True or False: During the log (exponential) phase, the bacterial population doubles with each division.

    True

  • Which factors can be investigated for their effect on the growth of microorganisms?

    Factors such as:

    • temperature

    • pH

    • nutrient availability

  • Why must agar plates be prepared using aseptic technique in this practical?

    To avoid contamination of the plates by unwanted microorganisms, which would otherwise affect the reliability of the results.

  • Lawn (of bacteria)

    A continuous layer of bacterial growth formed when colonies are too numerous to count or overlap, so individual colonies can no longer be distinguished.

  • What method is used to reduce the density of a bacterial culture so that colonies are countable?

    A serial dilution method is used to dilute the bacteria in the broth before plating them onto the agar.

  • Serial dilution

    A series of dilutions of a stock solution in which the concentration decreases by the same quantity (e.g. the same factor) between each successive test tube.

  • Why are serial dilutions carried out before plating microorganisms?

    To create a less dense culture of cells, which means more countable colonies when studying bacteria or yeast populations (rather than an uncountable lawn).

  • In a 'doubling dilution' serial dilution, the concentration is between each test tube.

    In a 'doubling dilution' serial dilution, the concentration is halved between each test tube.

  • Colony-forming unit (CFU)

    A live bacterial cell that is able to reproduce and form a colony on the agar plate.

  • Outline the method to investigate the effect of temperature on the growth of microorganisms.

    • Spread a sample of diluted bacterial broth onto the surface of each sterile agar plate

    • Tape the lid shut

    • Keep three plates in the fridge overnight (5°C) and three in the incubator overnight (25°C)

    • Count the number of colonies the next morning, keeping the lid on

    • Calculate the average number of colonies and compare results at each temperature

  • Why should the lid be kept on the agar plate while counting colonies?

    To prevent contamination of the culture and to avoid releasing potentially harmful microorganisms, maintaining safe aseptic conditions.

  • Explain why bacteria cultured at 25°C grow faster and form more colonies than those cultured at 5°C.

    25°C is close to the optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the bacteria, so cellular reactions occur rapidly and growth is fast.

    At 5°C the enzymes' cellular reactions are very slow, so growth is much slower, producing fewer and smaller colonies (or none at all).

  • How can the effect of pH on microbial growth be investigated?

    The pH of the broth is altered by adding different buffer solutions of different pH levels.

  • Apart from counting colonies, what alternative measure of microbial growth can be used?

    Turbidity (cloudiness) of the culture can be used as a measure of growth instead of counting colonies.

  • How can the effect of nutrient availability on microbial growth be investigated?

    Nutrient availability is altered by using agar plates with different nutrient contents.

  • True or False: A serial dilution reduces the density of a culture so that colonies become countable rather than forming a lawn.

    True

  • True or False: Bacteria grow faster at 5°C than at 25°C.

    False — bacteria grow faster at 25°C, which is closer to the optimum temperature for enzyme activity.

  • Immobilised enzyme

    An enzyme that is attached to an insoluble material to prevent it mixing with the product.

  • State three methods by which enzymes can be immobilised.

    • Attached to an inert substance

    • Enclosed in a capsule

    • Contained within a partially permeable membrane

  • Why are enzymes often immobilised for use in industrial processes?

    So that the enzyme can be reused in future processes rather than being discarded after a single use.

    It also avoids the need to separate the enzyme from the product during downstream processing.

  • Describe how an immobilised enzyme column is used to catalyse a reaction.

    • The immobilised enzymes are contained within a column, through which the substrate is filtered in solution

    • As the substrate runs through the column, enzyme-substrate complexes form and products are produced

    • The products flow out of the column, leaving the enzymes behind to catalyse the reaction again

  • In an immobilised enzyme column, the substrate is filtered through in , forming enzyme-substrate complexes.

    In an immobilised enzyme column, the substrate is filtered through in solution, forming enzyme-substrate complexes.

  • Give three advantages of using immobilised enzymes.

    • There is no enzyme in the product, so it is uncontaminated and needs no further processing or filtering

    • The enzyme can be reused multiple times, which is efficient and cost-effective (enzymes are expensive)

    • They have a greater tolerance of temperature and pH changes, as immobilisation makes them more stable

  • Give three disadvantages of using immobilised enzymes.

    • Specialist, expensive equipment is required

    • Immobilised enzymes are more costly to buy, so are unlikely to be worthwhile for smaller industries

    • The rate of reaction is sometimes lower, as the enzymes cannot freely mix with the substrate

  • Why does using immobilised enzymes mean the product does not need further processing to remove enzyme?

    Because the enzyme is attached to an insoluble material and stays behind (e.g. in the column), so there is no enzyme in the product — it is uncontaminated.

  • Which enzyme is immobilised to produce lactose-free dairy products?

    Lactase.

  • Which immobilised enzyme is used to produce semi-synthetic penicillin?

    Penicillin acylase.

  • Which immobilised enzyme converts glucose into fructose?

    Glucose isomerase.

  • Lactose is a disaccharide that is broken down by lactase into glucose and .

    Lactose is a disaccharide that is broken down by lactase into glucose and galactose.

  • When discussing the advantages and disadvantages of immobilised enzymes in the exam, what should you be specific about?

    The cost implications — there are various considerations regarding the economic value of immobilising enzymes (e.g. expensive equipment and enzymes versus the savings from reuse and no downstream separation).

  • What reaction does immobilised lactase catalyse?

    It converts lactose into glucose and galactose.

  • Why is producing semi-synthetic penicillin useful?

    It converts penicillin into a form that is effective against penicillin-resistant organisms, helping to overcome penicillin resistance.

  • Why is fructose useful in food production?

    Fructose is a sweeter sugar, so a lower quantity is needed to sweeten foods.

  • True or False: Immobilised enzymes can be reused in future reactions.

    True

  • True or False: The product leaving an immobilised enzyme column is contaminated with enzyme.

    False — the enzyme stays attached to the insoluble material, so the product contains no enzyme.

Sign up to unlock flashcards

or