Exam code: H420
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Why do all living organisms need to exchange substances with their surrounding environment?
They need to:
Take in oxygen and nutrients
Release the waste products generated by their cells

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Exchange site
The location within an organism where substances are exchanged with the environment, e.g. the lungs in humans (gases) and the roots in plants (water and minerals).
At what point is a substance said to have entered or left an organism?
Only when it crosses the cell surface membrane.
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Why do all living organisms need to exchange substances with their surrounding environment?
They need to:
Take in oxygen and nutrients
Release the waste products generated by their cells
Exchange site
The location within an organism where substances are exchanged with the environment, e.g. the lungs in humans (gases) and the roots in plants (water and minerals).
At what point is a substance said to have entered or left an organism?
Only when it crosses the cell surface membrane.
Why can small, single-celled organisms (e.g. Chlamydomonas) exchange substances directly with their environment by diffusion?
They have a large surface area : volume ratio
The diffusion / transport distances are very small, so nutrients and molecules reach all parts of the cell efficiently
They also have lower levels of activity and therefore smaller metabolic demands
State the three main reasons larger organisms require specialised mass transport systems.
Increasing transport distances
Decreasing surface area : volume ratio
Increasing levels of activity
Explain why increasing transport distances make simple diffusion unsuitable in larger organisms.
In larger, more complex organisms the exchange sites tend to be far away from the other cells.
This large transport distance means diffusion would not be fast enough to meet the metabolic requirements of cells.
What happens to an organism's surface area : volume ratio as its size increases, and why?
The surface area : volume ratio decreases.
This is because volume increases much more rapidly than surface area as size increases.
Why does a decreasing surface area : volume ratio make diffusion inefficient in larger organisms?
There is less surface area for absorbing nutrients and gases and secreting waste products
The greater volume creates a longer diffusion distance to the cells and tissues of the organism
Single-celled organisms have a high SA : V ratio; the small volume means the diffusion distance to all organelles is .
Single-celled organisms have a high SA : V ratio; the small volume means the diffusion distance to all organelles is short.
How does an increasing level of activity in larger organisms increase the need for a transport system?
Larger organisms contain more cells, giving a higher level of metabolic activity
This means a greater demand for oxygen and nutrients and more waste produced
Diffusion alone cannot meet this increased demand efficiently
Mass flow
The bulk movement of materials in a directed manner, driven by some kind of force.
In a mass transport system, where does diffusion still take place?
Diffusion still occurs, but only at specific exchange sites at the start and end of the route travelled by the substances (e.g. the lungs are the exchange site of the gas exchange system).
State three ways in which mass transport systems help larger organisms.
Bring substances quickly from one exchange site to another
Maintain the diffusion gradients at exchange sites and between cells and their fluid surroundings
Ensure effective cell activity by keeping the fluid environment of cells within a suitable metabolic range
Give an example of a mass transport system in mammals and describe how it works.
The circulatory system.
The one-way flow of blood within the blood vessels carries essential nutrients and gases to all the cells of the body, with the lungs and capillaries acting as sites of exchange.
True or False: As an organism increases in size, its surface area : volume ratio increases.
False — the surface area : volume ratio decreases, because volume increases much more rapidly than surface area.
True or False: In a mass transport system, diffusion still occurs at specific exchange sites.
True
Why do large, multicellular organisms need a circulatory system, whereas single-celled organisms do not?
In large organisms the diffusion distances are too great, so materials such as oxygen and glucose would take far too long to diffuse to every cell.
Single-celled organisms can gain these reactants directly across their surface membranes, and short diffusion distances allow molecules to reach all parts of the cell quickly.
Mass transport system
A system that connects specialised exchange surfaces to the rest of the body and transports fluids containing oxygen, nutrients and waste, overcoming the problem of large diffusion distances.
What is the difference between a single and a double circulatory system?
In a single circulatory system, the blood passes through the heart once during one complete circuit of the body.
In a double circulatory system, the blood passes through the heart twice during one complete circuit of the body.
Fish have a single circulatory system, while mammals have a circulatory system.
Fish have a single circulatory system, while mammals have a double circulatory system.
Describe the path of blood through the single circulatory system of a fish.
Deoxygenated blood is pumped to the gills from the heart.
At the gills (the exchange site) oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the water and the blood.
Oxygenated blood then flows from the gills to the rest of the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients through the capillaries.
The blood then returns to the heart.
How many chambers does a fish heart have, and what are they?
The fish heart has just one atrium and one ventricle.
Describe the path of blood through the double circulatory system of a mammal.
Blood in the right side of the heart (deoxygenated) leaves and travels to the lungs.
The blood returns to the left side of the heart.
Oxygenated blood is then pumped from the left side around the rest of the body.
After passing through the organs and tissues, the blood returns to the right side of the heart.
Why is the mammalian heart divided into a left and right side by a wall (septum)?
The septum keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate:
The left side contains oxygenated blood (pumped to the body).
The right side contains deoxygenated blood (pumped to the lungs).
Explain the advantage of a double circulatory system over a single circulatory system.
When blood passes through a capillary network, its pressure and speed drop significantly.
In a single system, blood passes through two capillary networks before returning to the heart.
In a double system, blood passes through only one capillary network before returning to the heart.
So double circulation maintains a higher blood pressure and speed of flow, keeping a steeper concentration gradient for efficient exchange of nutrients and waste with the tissues.
What is the difference between an open and a closed circulatory system?
In a closed circulatory system, blood is always contained within a network of blood vessels (found in all vertebrates and many invertebrates).
In an open circulatory system, blood is not contained within vessels but is pumped directly into body cavities (found in arthropods and molluscs).
Distinguish between the pulmonary and systemic circulation in humans.
Pulmonary circulation: the right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs for gas exchange.
Systemic circulation: blood returns to the left side of the heart, which pumps oxygenated blood at high pressure around the rest of the body.
Haemolymph
The name given to the blood of an insect. It is pumped by the tubular heart into the dorsal vessel and released into the haemocoel (body cavity), where it surrounds the organs but is not directed towards specific ones.
Describe how the open circulatory system of an insect works.
The tubular heart in the abdomen pumps haemolymph into the main blood vessel, the dorsal vessel.
The dorsal vessel delivers haemolymph into the haemocoel (body cavity), where it surrounds the organs.
Haemolymph eventually re-enters the heart through one-way valves called ostia.
Why can insects survive with a relatively inefficient open circulatory system that does not direct haemolymph to specific organs?
Because oxygen is not transported by the haemolymph. Instead, oxygen is delivered directly to the tissues via the tracheae (a system of tubes) that connect directly to the outside air.
True or False: In a closed circulatory system, blood is always contained within blood vessels.
True
True or False: In an insect, the haemolymph transports oxygen to the tissues.
False — oxygen is delivered directly to the tissues via the tracheae, not by the haemolymph.
Artery
A blood vessel that transports blood away from the heart, usually at high pressure, to the tissues.
Vein
A blood vessel that transports blood to the heart, usually at low pressure.
Name the three layers that make up an artery wall, from innermost to outermost.
Tunica intima (innermost)
Tunica media (middle)
Tunica adventitia/externa (outermost)
Describe the structure of the tunica media in an artery.
It is a thick layer made of smooth muscle cells and elastic tissue.
What is the function of the endothelium that lines the lumen of all blood vessels?
It is one cell thick and very smooth, which reduces friction and allows free blood flow.
What is the role of the collagen found in the tunica adventitia of an artery?
Collagen is a strong protein that protects the vessel from damage by over-stretching.
Explain how the narrow lumen of an artery relates to its function.
The narrow lumen helps to maintain a high blood pressure as blood is transported away from the heart.
How does the structure of arterioles allow them to regulate blood flow to specific organs?
Arterioles have a muscular layer with many muscle cells and few elastic fibres.
These muscle cells contract to close the lumen, partially cutting off and regulating blood flow to specific organs (e.g. reducing flow to the stomach during exercise so more blood reaches the muscles).
Describe one way the structure of a vein differs from an artery, and explain it.
A vein has a much thinner tunica media because it carries blood at low pressure, so it does not need a thick muscular layer.
What is the function of the valves found in veins?
They prevent the backflow of blood, helping to return blood to the heart against low pressure.
connect the capillaries to the veins and have few or no elastic fibres and a large lumen.
Venules connect the capillaries to the veins and have few or no elastic fibres and a large lumen.
In which type of blood vessel is a pulse present, and in which is it absent?
A pulse is present in arteries and absent in veins.
Capillary bed
A network of capillaries that branches between cells and acts as an important exchange surface within the circulatory system.
Explain how the structure of capillaries makes them efficient surfaces for exchange.
Walls one endothelial cell thick – short diffusion distance for oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Very small lumen – forces blood to travel slowly, giving more time for diffusion.
Large numbers branching between cells – short diffusion distance to tissues.
Pores in the walls – allow blood plasma to leak out and form tissue fluid.
How do white blood cells leave the capillaries to combat infection in the tissues?
They squeeze through the intercellular junctions (gaps) in the capillary walls to reach the affected tissues.
Explain how the structure of the tunica media relates to its function in an artery.
The smooth muscle allows the artery to withstand high pressure and to contract to narrow the lumen, reducing blood flow.
The elastic tissue stretches and recoils to maintain blood pressure and even out fluctuations in pressure.
Describe a second way the structure of a vein differs from an artery, and explain it.
A vein has a much larger lumen, which ensures blood returns to the heart at an adequate speed and reduces friction with the endothelium.
True or False: Arteries transport blood towards the heart.
False — arteries transport blood away from the heart.
True or False: Capillary walls are one endothelial cell thick.
True
Tissue fluid
The fluid that surrounds the cells of the body, formed when some plasma leaks out through gaps in the walls of capillaries. It bathes almost all cells outside the circulatory system and is the medium through which substances are exchanged between cells and the blood.
How is tissue fluid formed?
As blood passes through capillaries, some plasma leaks out through gaps in the capillary walls to surround the cells of the body, forming tissue fluid.
How does the composition of tissue fluid differ from that of plasma?
Tissue fluid has a very similar composition to plasma but contains far fewer proteins.
Hydrostatic pressure (in tissue fluid formation)
The pressure exerted by a fluid. In a capillary this is the blood pressure, generated by the contraction of the heart muscle, which tends to force fluid out of the capillary.
Oncotic pressure
The osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins within a blood vessel. The plasma proteins lower the water potential inside the vessel, causing water to move into the blood vessel by osmosis.
At the arterial end of a capillary, why is there a net movement of water OUT into the tissue fluid?
At the arterial end the hydrostatic pressure is greater than the oncotic (osmotic) pressure.
The hydrostatic pressure is high enough to force fluid out of the capillary, so the net movement of water is out of the capillary into the tissue fluid.
At the venous end of a capillary, why does water flow BACK into the capillary?
The hydrostatic pressure inside the capillary has fallen (due to increased distance from the heart and slowing of blood flow)
The water potential (osmotic) gradient remains the same as at the arterial end
The osmotic pressure is now greater than the hydrostatic pressure, so water flows back into the capillary from the tissue fluid
What happens to the hydrostatic pressure and the water potential gradient along a capillary from the arterial to the venous end?
The hydrostatic pressure falls from the arterial end to the venous end.
The water potential gradient (osmotic pressure) stays the same at both ends.
Roughly 90% of the fluid lost at the arterial end of a capillary is reabsorbed at the venous end. The remaining 10% is collected by and returned to the circulatory system.
Roughly 90% of the fluid lost at the arterial end of a capillary is reabsorbed at the venous end. The remaining 10% is collected by lymph vessels and returned to the circulatory system.
Oedema
The accumulation of fluid around the tissues. It occurs when blood pressure is high (hypertension), as the increased hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end pushes more fluid out of the capillary than can be reabsorbed.
How does tissue fluid enter the lymphatic system?
Larger molecules that cannot pass back through the capillary wall enter the closed-ended lymph vessels (which have large pores) through small valves.
Why is it important that plasma proteins escaping into tissue fluid are returned to the blood via the lymph capillaries?
If plasma proteins were not removed from the tissue fluid, they could lower the water potential of the tissue fluid and prevent the reabsorption of water back into the blood at the capillaries.
Besides returning fluid and proteins to the blood, what other transport role does the lymphatic system perform?
After digestion, lipids are transported from the intestines to the bloodstream by the lymphatic system.
Why does tissue fluid contain far fewer proteins than plasma?
Plasma proteins are too large to fit through the gaps in the capillary walls, so they remain in the blood.
How does lymph move along the lymph vessels?
The lymph moves along the larger vessels by compression caused by body movement, with valves preventing any backflow.
True or False: At the arterial end of a capillary, the hydrostatic pressure is greater than the oncotic (osmotic) pressure.
True
True or False: Plasma proteins are small enough to pass freely out through the gaps in the capillary walls into the tissue fluid.
False — plasma proteins are too large to fit through the gaps, so they remain in the blood.
What are the four chambers of the mammalian heart?
The two atria (top chambers)
The two ventricles (bottom chambers)
Septum
A wall of muscular tissue that separates the left and right sides of the heart, ensuring oxygenated and deoxygenated blood do not mix.
Distinguish between the interatrial septum and the interventricular septum.
The interatrial septum separates the left and right atria
The interventricular septum separates the left and right ventricles
Pericardium
A tough, fibrous sac that surrounds and protects the heart within the chest cavity.
When do valves in the heart open?
They open when the pressure of blood behind them is greater than the pressure in front of them.
Why are valves important in the heart?
They keep blood flowing forward in the correct direction and stop it flowing backwards
They help maintain the correct pressure in the chambers of the heart
Which valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle?
The atrioventricular valve, also known as the tricuspid valve.
Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?
The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve.
The right ventricle and the pulmonary artery are separated by the valve, while the left ventricle and aorta are separated by the aortic valve.
The right ventricle and the pulmonary artery are separated by the pulmonary valve, while the left ventricle and aorta are separated by the aortic valve.
Name the two blood vessels that bring blood to the heart.
Vena cava
Pulmonary vein
Coronary arteries
The arteries on the surface of the heart that supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood for aerobic respiration.
Why must the coronary arteries be kept clear of plaques?
Blockages reduce the heart muscle's oxygen supply, which could lead to angina or a heart attack (myocardial infarction).
When do valves in the heart close?
They close when the pressure of blood in front of them is greater than the pressure behind them.
Name the two blood vessels that take blood away from the heart.
Pulmonary artery
Aorta
True or False: The two upper chambers of the heart are the ventricles.
False — the two upper chambers are the atria; the ventricles are the lower chambers.
True or False: The septum stops oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mixing between the two sides of the heart.
True
Why are dissections a valuable part of scientific research?
They allow the internal structures of organs to be examined, so that theories can be made about how the organs function.
Give three ethical concerns surrounding the use of animal specimens for dissection.
Concern about how the animals are raised and killed
It goes against the religious beliefs of some individuals
The specimen should come from a reputable source and be disposed of in the correct manner
When multiple specimens are being dissected, what should be true of the organisms they come from, and why?
They should be taken from individual organisms of the same species and roughly the same age.
This makes any comparisons between specimens valid and reliable.
List the apparatus used to carry out a mammalian heart dissection.
Scissors
Scalpel
Tweezers / forceps
Dissection board
Paper towels
Biological specimen
Pins
Gloves
Goggles
Why should a lab coat, gloves and eye protection be worn during a dissection?
To avoid contamination with biological material, which could otherwise cause an allergic reaction.
Describe the difference in use between scissors and a scalpel during a dissection.
Scissors are used for cutting large sections of tissue, where cuts do not need to be precise
A scalpel enables finer, more precise cutting and needs to be sharp to ensure this
State two safety precautions to follow when using a scalpel during a dissection.
Cut away from your body
Keep your fingers far from the blade to reduce the chance of cutting yourself
What are pins used for during a heart dissection?
To move other sections of the specimen aside, leaving the desired structure exposed.
Give three limitations of using dissection to study an organ.
It can be hard to see some of the smaller, finer structures within organs
The specimens do not reflect how the tissue would look in a living organism
If only a single specimen is dissected, anomalies within it may be ignored or glossed over
In a dissected heart, how can you distinguish the left ventricle from the right ventricle?
The left ventricle is much larger (with a thicker wall) than the right ventricle.
Note that, just as in diagrams, the right ventricle appears on the left side of the heart when viewed.
In the heart, the right ventricle connects to the right atrium via the valve.
In the heart, the right ventricle connects to the right atrium via the tricuspid valve.
If asked in an exam to suggest a method of dissection for a particular organ, what must you include to gain the marks?
You must name the specific tools that should be used (e.g. scissors and forceps), rather than referring to tools in general terms.
True or False: The left ventricle has a thicker, more muscular wall than the right ventricle.
True
True or False: When viewed in a dissection, the right ventricle appears on the right side of the heart.
False — the right ventricle appears on the left side of the heart when viewed, just as it does in diagrams.
Tricuspid valve
The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle that prevents the backflow of blood.
Dissection
The cutting open of a biological specimen to examine its internal structures.
Cardiac cycle
The series of events that take place in one heart beat, including muscle contraction and relaxation.
Systole
The contraction of the heart muscle.
Diastole
The relaxation of the heart muscle.
How are volume changes in a heart chamber related to pressure changes?
When volume decreases, pressure increases
When volume increases, pressure decreases
Contraction of the heart muscle decreases the volume of the chamber, and relaxation increases it again.
Describe what happens during atrial systole.
The walls of the atria contract, so atrial volume decreases and atrial pressure increases
Atrial pressure rises above ventricular pressure, forcing the atrioventricular (AV) valves open
Blood is forced into the ventricles
The ventricles are relaxed (ventricular diastole coincides with atrial systole)
Describe what happens during ventricular systole.
The walls of the ventricles contract, so ventricular volume decreases and ventricular pressure increases
Ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure, forcing the AV valves closed (preventing backflow)
Ventricular pressure rises above that in the aorta and pulmonary artery, forcing the semilunar (SL) valves open
Blood is forced into the arteries and out of the heart; the atria are relaxing (atrial diastole)
Describe what happens during diastole (of the cardiac cycle).
The ventricles and atria are both relaxed
Ventricular pressure drops below that in the aorta and pulmonary artery, forcing the SL valves closed
Blood returns to the heart via the vena cava and pulmonary vein, and the atria fill with blood
Atrial pressure rises above ventricular pressure, forcing the AV valves open, so blood flows passively into the ventricles
In general, what causes a heart valve to open?
A valve opens when the pressure of blood behind it is greater than the pressure in front of it.
What is the state of the atrioventricular (AV) and semilunar (SL) valves during each stage of the cardiac cycle?
Atrial systole: AV valves open, SL valves closed
Ventricular systole: AV valves closed, SL valves open
Diastole: AV valves open, SL valves closed
Why is there no gap between one cardiac cycle and the next?
One cardiac cycle is followed by another in a continuous process – there is no gap between cycles where blood stops flowing.
On a cardiac cycle pressure graph, the AV valve shuts when the pressure in the exceeds the pressure in the atrium.
On a cardiac cycle pressure graph, the AV valve shuts when the pressure in the ventricle exceeds the pressure in the atrium.
On a cardiac cycle pressure graph, why does the aortic (semilunar) valve open during ventricular systole?
As the ventricle continues to contract, the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds that in the aorta. This forces the aortic valve open and blood is forced into the aorta.
How do you calculate heart rate (in beats per minute) from the length of one cardiac cycle shown on a graph?
Step 1: Read off the time for one complete cardiac cycle (one heart beat) from the graph
Step 2: Calculate beats per second by dividing 1 by the cycle length in seconds
Step 3: Multiply the beats per second by 60 to give beats per minute
In general, what causes a heart valve to close?
A valve closes when the pressure of blood in front of it is greater than the pressure behind it.
True or False: The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open during ventricular systole.
False — the AV valves are closed during ventricular systole to prevent backflow of blood into the atria.
True or False: A heart valve opens when the pressure of blood behind it is greater than the pressure in front of it.
True
Cardiac output
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per unit of time (usually expressed in dm³ or litres per minute).
Heart rate
The number of times the heart beats per minute, i.e. the number of cardiac cycles per minute.
Stroke volume
The volume of blood pumped out of the heart during one cardiac cycle.
State the equation used to calculate cardiac output.
cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume
How would you rearrange the cardiac output equation to find heart rate?
heart rate = cardiac output ÷ stroke volume
How would you rearrange the cardiac output equation to find stroke volume?
stroke volume = cardiac output ÷ heart rate
Cardiac output = heart rate ×
Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume
Explain why individuals who are fitter often have a higher cardiac output.
Fitter individuals tend to have thicker and stronger ventricular muscles, so a greater volume of blood can be pumped with each contraction (a larger stroke volume).
Why does cardiac output increase during exercise?
So that the blood supply can match the increased metabolic demands of the cells during exercise (e.g. delivering more oxygen and glucose and removing more waste).
A woman takes 1 second to complete a single cardiac cycle and has a stroke volume of 73 cm³. Calculate her cardiac output in dm³ per minute.
Step 1: Find the heart rate
1 cardiac cycle = 1 second, and 1 minute = 60 seconds, so heart rate = 60 ÷ 1 = 60 bpm
Step 2: Apply the equation
cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume = 60 × 73 = 4380 cm³ per minute
Step 3: Convert to dm³
4380 ÷ 1000 = 4.38 dm³ per minute
When reading stroke volume from a cardiac cycle graph, what quantity must the graph show?
You must use the change in volume of the ventricle, not the change in pressure.
What is the approximate cardiac output of an average adult at rest?
Roughly 4.7 litres of blood per minute.
Why is reading stroke volume from a cardiac cycle graph a common pitfall?
Most cardiac cycle graphs plot pressure changes in the left ventricle, atrium and aorta, so students often mistakenly try to read stroke volume from a pressure graph instead of a volume graph.
True or False: Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume.
True
True or False: Stroke volume is the number of times the heart beats per minute.
False — that describes heart rate; stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped out per cardiac cycle.
Myogenic
Describes muscle that contracts and generates its own rhythm without an external (nervous) stimulus. The heartbeat is myogenic.
What does it mean that the control of the basic heartbeat is myogenic?
The heart will beat by itself, without any external stimulus. This intrinsic rhythm causes the heart to beat at around 60 times per minute.
Sinoatrial node (SAN)
A group of cells in the wall of the right atrium that acts as the heart's pacemaker, initiating a wave of depolarisation that spreads across the atria.
What is the role of the sinoatrial node (SAN) in initiating a heartbeat?
The SAN initiates a wave of depolarisation that spreads across both atria, causing the atria to contract (atrial systole).
What is the role of the annulus fibrosus in the heart?
It is a region of non-conducting tissue that prevents the wave of depolarisation spreading straight from the atria to the ventricles.
This ensures the atria and ventricles do not contract at the same time.
What is the role of the atrioventricular node (AVN)?
The AVN is a region of conducting tissue between the atria and ventricles.
After a slight delay, it passes the wave of depolarisation on to the bundle of His.
Why is the delay at the atrioventricular node (AVN) important?
The delay means the ventricles contract after the atria.
This gives the atria time to empty their blood fully into the ventricles before ventricular contraction.
What is the bundle of His?
A collection of conducting tissue in the septum (middle) of the heart.
What does the bundle of His do?
It divides into two conducting fibres, called Purkyne tissue, and carries the wave of excitation along them.
What is the role of the Purkyne fibres (Purkyne tissue)?
They spread around the ventricles and initiate the depolarisation of the ventricles from the apex (bottom) of the heart.
This makes the ventricles contract, forcing blood out of the pulmonary artery and aorta.
Why do the ventricles begin contracting from the apex (bottom) of the heart?
The Purkyne fibres carry the wave of excitation to the apex first, so contraction starts at the base.
This pushes blood upwards and outwards into the pulmonary artery and aorta.
Outline the sequence of electrical events that coordinate one heartbeat.
SAN initiates a wave of depolarisation, causing the atria to contract
The annulus fibrosus stops this spreading directly to the ventricles
The AVN receives the wave and, after a delay, passes it to the bundle of His
The bundle of His carries it through the septum to the Purkyne fibres
The Purkyne fibres spread depolarisation from the apex, causing the ventricles to contract
The bundle of His is a collection of conducting tissue in the (middle) of the heart.
The bundle of His is a collection of conducting tissue in the septum (middle) of the heart.
tissue, which prevents depolarisation spreading straight to the ventricles, is called the annulus fibrosus.
Non-conducting tissue, which prevents depolarisation spreading straight to the ventricles, is called the annulus fibrosus.
True or False: The heartbeat is myogenic, meaning it is initiated by nerve impulses from the brain.
False — myogenic means the heart generates its own beat without any external (nervous) stimulus.
True or False: The atrioventricular node (AVN) delays the wave of depolarisation before passing it on to the bundle of His.
True
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
A trace that records the electrical activity of the heart, produced by electrodes placed on the skin. It shows a series of distinctive waves generated by the activity of the heart.
How is an ECG produced?
Electrodes placed on the skin detect the electrical activity of the heart and produce the ECG trace.
What causes the P wave on an ECG, and what does it result in?
The P wave is caused by the depolarisation of the atria, which results in atrial contraction (systole).
What causes the QRS complex on an ECG?
The QRS complex is caused by the depolarisation of the ventricles, which results in ventricular contraction (systole).
What causes the T wave on an ECG, and what does it result in?
The T wave is caused by the repolarisation of the ventricles, which results in ventricular relaxation (diastole).
The QRS complex is caused by the depolarisation of the , resulting in their contraction.
The QRS complex is caused by the depolarisation of the ventricles, resulting in their contraction.
What do some scientists think causes the U wave on an ECG?
The cause of the U wave is uncertain, but some scientists think it is caused by the repolarisation of the Purkyne fibres.
How can an ECG be used to diagnose heart problems?
Some heart problems produce characteristic shapes or waves in an ECG, so a doctor can use the trace as a diagnostic tool to identify the specific problem.
Tachycardia
A condition in which the heart beats too fast. A resting heart rate of over 100 bpm is classed as tachycardia.
Bradycardia
A condition in which the heart beats too slowly. A resting heart rate below 60 bpm is classed as bradycardia.
Many fit individuals or athletes have lower heart rates, which is usually not dangerous.
Ectopic heartbeat
A condition caused by an early heartbeat followed by a pause. It is common in the population and usually requires no treatment unless very severe.
Fibrillation
An irregular heartbeat that disrupts the rhythm of the heart. Severe cases can be very dangerous, even fatal.
When interpreting a faulty ECG, which two features of the heartbeat are most important to consider?
The speed of the heartbeat (too fast or too slow)
The rhythm / regularity of the heartbeat
Why is the QRS complex the largest wave on an ECG?
Because the ventricles have the largest muscle mass, so their depolarisation produces the largest deflection.
True or False: The P wave on an ECG represents depolarisation of the ventricles.
False — the P wave represents depolarisation of the atria; it is the QRS complex that represents the ventricles.
True or False: A resting heart rate below 60 bpm is described as bradycardia.
True
Erythrocyte
Another name for a red blood cell, the cell in which the majority of oxygen is transported bound to haemoglobin.
Oxyhaemoglobin
The molecule formed when oxygen binds to haemoglobin.\n\nOxygen + Haemoglobin $\rightleftharpoons$ Oxyhaemoglobin
How is the majority of oxygen transported around the body?
Bound to the protein haemoglobin inside red blood cells (erythrocytes).
How many oxygen molecules can one haemoglobin molecule carry?
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen molecules (eight oxygen atoms).
What is cooperative binding in haemoglobin?
The binding of the first oxygen molecule causes a conformational change in the haemoglobin molecule.\n\nThis makes it easier for each successive oxygen molecule to bind.
What are the three main ways carbon dioxide is transported around the body?
A very small percentage dissolved in the blood plasma (in solution)\n\n- Bound to haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin\n\n- The largest percentage as hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO₃⁻)
Carbaminohaemoglobin
The compound formed when carbon dioxide binds to haemoglobin.
Describe how hydrogen carbonate ions are formed in red blood cells.
Carbon dioxide diffuses from the plasma into red blood cells\n\n- It combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), catalysed by carbonic anhydrase\n\n- Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) and hydrogen ions (H⁺)
What is the role of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells?
It catalyses the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).\n\nWithout it the reaction proceeds very slowly, so carbonic acid forms more slowly in plasma than in red blood cells.
How does haemoglobin act as a buffer in red blood cells?
Hydrogen ions (H⁺) from the dissociation of carbonic acid combine with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid.\n\nThis prevents the H⁺ ions from lowering the pH of the red blood cell.
Hydrogen ions combine with haemoglobin to form , which prevents a fall in pH inside the red blood cell.
Hydrogen ions combine with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid, which prevents a fall in pH inside the red blood cell.
What is the chloride shift?
The movement of chloride ions into red blood cells that occurs when hydrogen carbonate ions are formed.\n\nAs HCO₃⁻ ions move out of the cell, negatively charged chloride ions (Cl⁻) move in via the same transport protein to prevent an electrical imbalance.
How does the chloride shift differ from the Bohr shift?
The Bohr shift occurs when a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes haemoglobin to release oxygen into respiring tissues\n\n- The chloride shift is the movement of chloride ions into red blood cells when hydrogen carbonate ions are formed
Why can each haemoglobin molecule carry four oxygen molecules?
Because it contains four haem groups, each able to bind one molecule of oxygen.
True or False: Each haemoglobin molecule can bind a maximum of four oxygen molecules.
True
True or False: The largest proportion of carbon dioxide is transported bound directly to haemoglobin.
False — the largest proportion is transported as hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO₃⁻).
Oxygen dissociation curve
A graph showing the rate at which oxygen associates with, and dissociates from, haemoglobin at different partial pressures of oxygen (pO2).
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2)
The pressure exerted by oxygen within a mixture of gases; it is a measure of oxygen concentration.
Affinity (of haemoglobin for oxygen)
The ease with which haemoglobin binds to and dissociates from oxygen.
High affinity: binds oxygen easily and dissociates slowly
Low affinity: binds oxygen slowly and dissociates easily
When is haemoglobin described as saturated?
When all of its oxygen binding sites are taken up with oxygen, i.e. when it contains four oxygen molecules.
Why is the oxygen dissociation curve S-shaped (sigmoid) rather than a straight line?
Because oxygen binds to haemoglobin at different rates as the pO2 changes, rather than at a constant rate.
This reflects the changing affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at different partial pressures of oxygen.
Explain the shape of the oxygen dissociation curve in terms of oxygen binding.
Shallow bottom-left: due to haemoglobin's shape, it is difficult for the first oxygen molecule to bind, so binding is slow
Steep middle: after the first oxygen binds, haemoglobin changes shape (conformation), making it easier for further oxygen molecules to bind
Levelling off top-right: as haemoglobin approaches saturation there are few remaining binding sites, so the fourth oxygen molecule takes longer to bind
Cooperative binding
The shape (conformation) change of haemoglobin after the first oxygen molecule binds, which makes it easier for the subsequent oxygen molecules to bind.
Why is oxygen readily released to respiring tissues?
Respiring tissues have a medium/lower pO2, which corresponds to the steep region of the curve.
Here a small decrease in pO2 causes a large decrease in percentage saturation, so plenty of oxygen dissociates and is released to the cells for respiration.
What happens to haemoglobin saturation in the lungs, and why?
In the lungs the pO2 is high, so haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen and becomes almost fully saturated.
There is very little dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin at high pO2.
How does the affinity of foetal haemoglobin for oxygen compare to that of adult haemoglobin?
Foetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin.
Why is the higher oxygen affinity of foetal haemoglobin important?
It allows the foetus to obtain oxygen from its mother's blood at the placenta.
Foetal haemoglobin can bind oxygen at the low pO2 at which the mother's haemoglobin is releasing (dissociating with) oxygen.
How does the oxygen dissociation curve for foetal haemoglobin compare to that of adult haemoglobin on a graph?
The curve for foetal haemoglobin lies to the left of the curve for adult haemoglobin.
This means that at any given partial pressure of oxygen, foetal haemoglobin has a higher percentage saturation than adult haemoglobin.
After birth, a baby begins to produce adult haemoglobin, which gradually replaces haemoglobin.
After birth, a baby begins to produce adult haemoglobin, which gradually replaces foetal haemoglobin.
Why do llamas, which live at high altitude, have haemoglobin that binds very readily to oxygen?
The partial pressure of oxygen is lower at higher altitudes.
Haemoglobin with a high affinity that binds oxygen very readily allows llamas to achieve a sufficient level of oxygen saturation in their blood even when the pO2 in the air is low.
Why do different types of haemoglobin have different oxygen-binding properties?
Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein of four globin polypeptides and four haem groups; the haem structure is identical in all types.
However, the globin chains can differ substantially, and these determine the precise oxygen-binding properties of the haemoglobin.
True or False: the haem group differs between types of haemoglobin, while the globin chains stay the same.
False — the haem structure is identical in all types; it is the globin chains that differ.
True or False: on a dissociation curve, the haemoglobin whose curve lies furthest to the left has the highest affinity for oxygen.
True
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