Exam code: H420
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Disease
An illness or disorder of the body or mind that leads to poor health, associated with a set of signs and symptoms.

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Communicable (infectious) disease
A disease caused by a pathogen that is transmissible, i.e. it can be spread between individuals within a population.
Pathogen
A microorganism that causes disease. Pathogens include bacteria, viruses, fungi and protoctists, and can affect both plants and animals.
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Disease
An illness or disorder of the body or mind that leads to poor health, associated with a set of signs and symptoms.
Communicable (infectious) disease
A disease caused by a pathogen that is transmissible, i.e. it can be spread between individuals within a population.
Pathogen
A microorganism that causes disease. Pathogens include bacteria, viruses, fungi and protoctists, and can affect both plants and animals.
What is the difference between an infectious and a non-infectious disease? Give an example of each.
Infectious (communicable) disease: caused by a pathogen that passes from infected to uninfected individuals, e.g. cholera, HIV/AIDS, malaria, tuberculosis
Non-infectious disease: a long-term disease not caused by a pathogen, e.g. lung cancer, cardiovascular disease, depression, cystic fibrosis, vitamin deficiencies
Name the four main types of microorganism that can act as pathogens.
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Protoctists
What type of organism are bacteria?
Bacteria are a diverse range of prokaryotic organisms.
Which pathogen type causes tuberculosis (TB) in humans, and what are its effects?
TB is caused by a bacterium.
The bacteria infect the lungs, causing a chronic cough and bloody mucus. It is often associated with poor hygiene and sanitation, and can also be transmitted to humans from infected cows.
Describe how ring rot affects potato plants, and which type of pathogen causes it.
Ring rot is caused by a bacterium.
The bacteria infect the vascular tissue and prevent the transport of water, causing the plant to wilt and die.
The infection spreads into the potato tubers, where the ring-arranged vascular tissue produces the characteristic black ring of rot.
Why can viruses not respire, replicate or synthesise proteins on their own?
Viruses do not have a cellular structure.
This means they cannot respire, produce ATP, replicate their genetic material or synthesise protein independently. Instead, they infect host cells and hijack the cell's machinery to replicate their own genetic material and proteins.
What are the effects of Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) on plants?
TMV infects several plant species and causes a distinct yellowing of the leaves, producing a characteristic mosaic pattern.
How does HIV, an enveloped retrovirus, insert its genetic material into a host cell?
The viral enzyme reverse transcriptase produces single-stranded DNA from the viral RNA
DNA polymerase synthesises double-stranded DNA from this single-stranded DNA
The double-stranded DNA is inserted into the host DNA, where it can remain inactive for many years
Once activated, the DNA provirus is used to synthesise new viruses
Which pathogen type causes malaria, and how is it transmitted?
Malaria is caused by a protoctist (protist).
The parasite is spread by (female) mosquitoes. Infected individuals experience fever, chills and fatigue.
Describe potato/late blight, including the pathogen type and how it is transmitted.
Late blight is caused by a protoctist (unusually, it has some fungal characteristics).
It is transmitted via spores. The first signs are small, dark brown marks on the leaves that quickly increase in size and number, and it destroys potato and tomato crops, leaving them inedible.
How does the body structure of fungi differ from that of plants?
Like plants, fungi are eukaryotic with cell walls and large central vacuoles.
However, instead of separate cells, their bodies consist of filaments called hyphae, which form a network that spreads throughout a host or the soil.
Which pathogen type causes Black Sigatoka in bananas, and how does it damage the plant?
Black Sigatoka is caused by a fungus.
It spreads through the leaves, reducing the plant's ability to photosynthesise. The lack of photosynthesis causes parts of the leaf to die, producing black streaks, until eventually the whole leaf dies.
Athlete's foot is a disease that exists on the surface of the skin, transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.
Athlete's foot is a fungal disease that exists on the surface of the skin, transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.
How do pathogenic bacteria differ from non-pathogenic bacteria?
Non-pathogenic bacteria do not cause disease or damage, whereas pathogenic bacteria cause disease. Pathogenic bacteria do not always infect host cells; they can remain within body cavities or spaces.
True or False: Viruses have a cellular structure and can replicate their genetic material independently.
False — viruses have no cellular structure, so they must hijack a host cell's machinery to replicate.
True or False: Malaria is caused by a protoctist and is transmitted by mosquitoes.
True
Disease transmission
The transfer of pathogens from an infected host to an uninfected host.
Pathogens must transfer from host to host to survive; if they cannot find new hosts, the population goes extinct.
Vector (disease transmission)
Any organism that transfers a pathogen from an infected individual to an uninfected individual.
The vector itself is usually not harmed by the pathogen. Many disease vectors are insects, because they reproduce in large numbers, increasing the likelihood of transmission.
How is Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) transmitted between plants?
By direct physical contact between individuals.
When the leaves of an infected plant touch the leaves of an uninfected plant, particles of the virus are transmitted.
How are influenza viruses transmitted between individuals?
Through the air via tiny droplets of water.
An infected individual breathes out droplets containing the virus, which are then breathed in by an uninfected individual. Being in close proximity is sufficient for transmission.
What are spores and how are they involved in pathogen transmission?
Spores are very small reproductive structures that are released into the environment and dispersed by wind or water.
Once they reach a food source (host) they begin growing. For example, P. infestans (potato blight) produces specialised spores called sporangia, adapted for wind dispersal.
How is HIV transmitted?
Only by the direct exchange of body fluids through intimate human contact (HIV cannot survive outside the human body and is not spread by a vector), for example:
sexual intercourse
blood donation / transfusion
sharing of needles used by intravenous drug users
from mother to child across the placenta
mixing of blood between mother and child during birth
from mother to child through breast milk
How is tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted?
By droplet infection.
Infected people with the active disease cough or sneeze, releasing Mycobacterium tuberculosis into the air in tiny droplets of liquid. Uninfected people then inhale these droplets.
TB therefore spreads more quickly among people living in overcrowded conditions.
How is the form of TB caused by Mycobacterium bovis spread to humans?
It occurs in cattle and is spread to humans through contaminated meat and unpasteurised milk.
This route is now rare in developed countries, but meat and milk can still be a source of infection in some developing countries.
How is malaria transmitted to humans?
By an insect vector — the female Anopheles mosquito.
The mosquito takes up Plasmodium when feeding on the blood of an infected person, then passes it to a new human when feeding again.
Malaria may also be transmitted by:
blood transfusion
re-use of unsterile needles
from mother to child across the placenta
Name two factors that determine whether disease transmission occurs in a population.
The presence of the pathogen — if the pathogen is not present it cannot spread.
The presence of susceptible individuals — a high proportion of immune or resistant individuals reduces the likelihood of transmission.
What is the difference between resistance and immunity to a disease?
Resistance: the individual has genetically-coded mechanisms that prevent infection or spread of the pathogen. On first exposure they develop no disease and no symptoms (e.g. sickle cell heterozygotes resist malaria).
Immunity: the individual has been previously infected, suffered symptoms and recovered. They are highly unlikely to develop symptoms if exposed again.
How does overcrowding / high population density affect the transmission of human diseases?
Pathogens spread by contact or droplets need hosts in close proximity, so areas of high population density (cities, schools, homeless shelters) have higher infection rates.
Why was the WHO malaria eradication programme (from the 1950s) largely unsuccessful?
Plasmodium became resistant to the drugs used to control it.
Anopheles mosquitoes became resistant to DDT and other insecticides used against them.
The Anopheles mosquito also favours habitats with high rainfall, high temperature and high humidity, so malaria remains widespread throughout the tropics and sub-tropics.
A disease that is always present in a population, even if in very low numbers, is described as .
A disease that is always present in a population, even if in very low numbers, is described as endemic.
(An epidemic is a large increase in cases/an outbreak; a pandemic is an epidemic that occurs on a large scale and crosses international boundaries.)
How does poverty affect the transmission of human diseases?
Poverty correlates with higher transmission: crowded housing with poor sanitation, no sewage or water treatment and limited hygiene products allow water-borne diseases (e.g. typhoid, cholera, polio) to spread.
True or False: HIV can be transmitted by an insect vector.
False — HIV cannot survive outside the human body and is spread only by direct exchange of body fluids, not by a vector.
True or False: Tuberculosis spreads more quickly among people living in overcrowded conditions.
True
What are the two categories of plant defence mechanism against pathogens?
Passive defences (always present)
Active defences (activated when pathogens invade)
Passive defence mechanisms
Defence mechanisms that are always present in the plant, including physical barriers that prevent pathogen entry and chemicals that reduce or prevent pathogen growth.
Active defence mechanisms
Defence mechanisms that are activated once a pathogen has invaded the plant, such as hypersensitivity and the formation of physical barriers by callose.
Give examples of passive physical barriers that make it harder for pathogens to enter a plant.
Waxy cuticle
Cellulose cell wall
Closed stomata
Bark
Casparian strip
How can viruses and bacteria penetrate the waxy cuticle of a leaf or stem?
Only if there is a wound on the leaf surface or stem, commonly caused by grazing herbivores.
How do passive chemical defences protect the surface of a plant?
They prevent pathogens from growing on the plant surface, often by creating acidic conditions.
Why is cell signalling vital for defence in plants but not in the same way for animals?
Plant cells have cell walls, so substances cannot move freely around the plant as immune cells do in animals.
This makes cell signalling essential for coordinating the active defence response.
Hypersensitivity
The rapid death of tissue surrounding the infection site. Although extreme, it is effective because it deprives pathogens of host tissue, nutrients and energy.
Which two compounds are released to reinforce cell walls when fungi and bacteria invade?
Callose and lignin.
Describe the roles of callose in forming active physical barriers against the spread of pathogens.
Forms a matrix in which antimicrobial compounds (hydrogen peroxide and phenols) can be deposited
Narrows the plasmodesmata, reducing the size of channels between neighbouring cells
Forms ingrowths into xylem vessels (tyloses)
Blocks the phloem by filling sieve pores, preventing transport of phloem sap
How does the breakdown of cellulose act as a signal that triggers plant defences?
Pathogens possess cellulase enzymes that digest cellulose in plant cell walls.
The molecules produced act as signals to cell surface receptors, stimulating the release of defence chemicals called phytoalexins.
What are the modes of action of phytoalexins?
Disrupting pathogen metabolism
Delaying pathogen reproduction
Disrupting bacterial cell surface membranes
Stimulating the release of chitinases (enzymes that break down chitin in fungal cell walls)
is a signalling molecule that migrates to uninfected areas of the plant, activating defences and giving long-term protection known as systemic acquired resistance.
Salicylic acid is a signalling molecule that migrates to uninfected areas of the plant, activating defences and giving long-term protection known as systemic acquired resistance.
How does ethylene act as a signalling compound in plant defence?
Plants under pathogen attack secrete ethylene onto their leaves.
The ethylene vaporises, stimulating other leaves on the same plant (and other plants) to react.
Give some examples of passive chemical defences that protect a plant's surface.
Toxic compounds (e.g. catechol)
Sticky resin in bark that traps pathogens
Compounds encouraging the growth of competing microorganisms
Enzyme inhibitors (e.g. tannins)
Receptor molecules that detect pathogens
Where are callose and lignin deposited when they reinforce plant cell walls?
Between the cell surface membrane and the cell wall.
True or False: Passive defence mechanisms are only present once a pathogen has invaded the plant.
False — passive defences are always present; it is active defences that are triggered once a pathogen invades.
True or False: Callose narrows the plasmodesmata, reducing the size of the channels between neighbouring plant cells.
True
Non-specific immune response
A defence mechanism present from birth that gives the same rapid response to every pathogen; it does not distinguish between different pathogens.
What are the four categories of non-specific defence in vertebrate animals?
Physical – body tissues act as barriers, preventing entry of pathogens
Cellular – cells detect pathogens, secrete protective substances and ingest/digest pathogens
Chemical – secreted substances create an inhospitable environment for pathogen growth
Commensal organisms – harmless bacteria and fungi compete with pathogens for nutrients
What is the role of the first line of defence?
It prevents the entry of pathogens into the body.
How does the skin act as a defence against pathogens?
Its outer layer is made of dry, dead, hardened cells filled with keratin (a tough fibrous protein), acting as a physical barrier
Sebum secretions contain fatty acids with antimicrobial properties
Evaporation of sweat leaves a salt residue; the low moisture, low pH and high salinity create an inhospitable environment for microorganisms
How do mucous membranes in the airways trap and remove pathogens?
Mucus-secreting cells (e.g. goblet cells) produce mucus, made sticky by glycoproteins with long carbohydrate chains
Mucus traps particles such as bacteria, viruses, pollen and dust
Cilia (hair-like structures) beat in a wave-like manner to move the mucus towards the back of the throat
What is an expulsive reflex?
A cough or sneeze, triggered when a pathogen irritates the lining of an airway.
Lysozymes
Antimicrobial enzymes that break down the cell walls of bacteria. They are found in body fluids such as blood, tears, sweat and breast milk.
How does hydrochloric acid in the stomach act as a chemical defence?
Hydrochloric acid produced by cells lining the stomach creates a low pH that helps kill bacteria ingested with food.
(Gut cells secrete mucus to protect themselves from the acid.)
How do commensal microorganisms help defend the body against pathogens?
Harmless bacteria and fungi (e.g. Candida albicans, E. coli) live on the skin, in the mouth and intestines without causing disease.
They compete with pathogenic microorganisms for nutrients, preventing them from invading host tissue.
The second line of defence involves phagocytic cells and responding to invading pathogens.
The second line of defence involves phagocytic cells and antimicrobial proteins responding to invading pathogens.
Outline how blood clotting occurs as a second-line defence.
A break in the skin or mucous membranes releases molecules that trigger a chemical cascade
Platelets release substances that undergo a series of chemical reactions
Fibrin forms a network that traps platelets, forming a clot
This prevents excess blood loss and pathogen entry, and provides a scab for wound healing.
What is inflammation?
A local response to infection and tissue damage, causing swelling, warmth and pain.
Cytokines
Small cell-signalling protein molecules that stimulate inflammation and an immune response in the infected area. Interleukins (e.g. IL-1 and IL-6) are a group of cytokines that promote inflammation.
Describe the key stages of wound repair beneath a scab.
New blood vessels form
Collagen is produced and granulation tissue forms to fill the wound
Stem cells move over the new tissue and divide by mitosis to produce epithelial cells
Contractile cells cause wound contraction, and unwanted cells die
What does the first line of defence consist of?
Skin
Mucous membranes
Expulsive reflexes
Chemical secretions
How does an expulsive reflex defend the body?
It causes a sudden expulsion of air containing respiratory secretions and the foreign particles that have entered the airway.
How is inflammation triggered by histamine?
Mast cells respond to tissue damage by secreting histamine, which stimulates:
Vasodilation, increasing blood flow through capillaries
"Leaky" capillaries, allowing fluid into tissues (causing swelling)
Phagocytes and plasma proteins to leave the blood and enter the tissue
True or False: Non-specific immune responses distinguish between different types of pathogen.
False — non-specific responses give the same rapid response to every pathogen and do not distinguish between them.
True or False: Lysozymes are antimicrobial enzymes found in body fluids such as tears and sweat.
True — lysozymes are found in fluids such as tears, sweat, blood and breast milk, where they break down bacterial cell walls.
Phagocyte
A white blood cell that carries out phagocytosis, engulfing and destroying dead cells and invasive microorganisms as part of the non-specific immune response.
Phagocytosis
The process of recognising and engulfing a pathogen.
Where are phagocytes produced and stored?
They are produced continuously in, and stored in, the bone marrow.
What are the three main types of phagocyte?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Phagocytes are responsible for removing dead cells and invasive microorganisms as part of a immune response.
Phagocytes are responsible for removing dead cells and invasive microorganisms as part of a non-specific immune response.
Chemotaxis
The movement of a cell (e.g. a neutrophil) towards a chemical stimulus; chemicals released by pathogens and by body cells under attack (e.g. histamine) attract neutrophils to the site of infection.
Describe the mode of action of a neutrophil during phagocytosis.
Chemicals from pathogens and from body cells under attack (e.g. histamine) attract the neutrophil to the site by chemotaxis
Receptor proteins on the neutrophil recognise and attach to antibodies on the pathogen's surface antigens
The cell surface membrane extends around the pathogen, engulfing it into a phagocytic vacuole
Lysosomes fuse with the vacuole and release digestive enzymes that destroy the pathogen
Give two structural/behavioural features used to identify neutrophils.
They are short-lived cells that often leave the blood by squeezing through capillary walls to patrol the tissues
They have a lobed nucleus, which can be used to identify them in blood smears
What is pus a sign of?
Dead neutrophils, which die after killing and digesting pathogens.
How do macrophages differ from neutrophils in size, lifespan and how they travel in the blood?
Macrophages are larger than neutrophils and are long-lived cells
They travel in the blood as monocytes, which develop into macrophages once they leave the blood and settle in tissues (e.g. lungs, liver, spleen, kidney, lymph nodes)
How does the mode of action of a macrophage differ from that of a neutrophil?
Macrophages carry out phagocytosis but do not destroy pathogens completely. Instead they cut the pathogen up and display its antigens on their surface (as part of an MHC), becoming an antigen-presenting cell that can be recognised by lymphocytes. This helps initiate the specific immune response.
Describe the structure of dendritic cells.
Large phagocytic cells with lengthy extensions, giving a large surface area to interact with pathogens and lymphocytes.
Antigen-presenting cell (APC)
One of the host's own cells (e.g. a macrophage, or a body cell invaded by a pathogen) that displays a pathogen's antigen on its cell surface membrane, allowing it to be recognised by T-lymphocytes.
Why are antigen-presenting cells important in triggering the specific immune response?
T-lymphocytes will only bind to an antigen when it is presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell. Once a T cell's surface receptor binds the specific complementary antigen, it becomes sensitised and divides to produce a clone of cells, helping recruit other immune cells.
How are phagocytes distributed around the body?
They are distributed around the body in the blood.
What is the role of dendritic cells?
Once they have ingested foreign material, they transport it to the lymph nodes, where they present antigens to lymphocytes.
True or False: Neutrophils are long-lived cells.
False — neutrophils are short-lived; it is macrophages that are long-lived.
True or False: Macrophages travel in the blood as monocytes.
True
Biological drawing
A line picture which shows specific features that have been observed when a specimen was viewed (e.g. under a microscope).
What two pieces of information must always be recorded on a biological drawing?
A title
The magnification under which the observations shown were made
State the conventions to follow for the lines used in a biological drawing.
Use a sharp HB pencil on plain white paper
Lines should be clear, single lines
No shading
Draw well-defined structures with proper proportions
What are the rules for drawing label lines on a biological drawing?
They should not cross one another and should have no arrowheads
They must connect directly to the part being labelled
They should be kept to one side, parallel to the top of the page
They should be drawn with a ruler
Why should a biological drawing take up as much of the space on the page as possible?
So that detail can be shown clearly and the proportions of the structures can be represented accurately.
What is the difference between a cell drawing and a plan drawing?
Cell drawings are typically made when viewing cells at a higher magnification.
Plan drawings are typically made of tissues viewed under lower magnifications, and individual cells are never drawn in a plan diagram.
How is a blood smear prepared for examination under a microscope?
A small amount of blood is spread on a glass microscope slide, stained, and covered with a coverslip.
The different blood cells can then be examined using a microscope.
How can red blood cells be identified in a blood smear?
They have no nuclei and a distinct biconcave shape.
In a blood smear, white blood cells have shapes, whereas red blood cells have a distinct biconcave shape.
In a blood smear, white blood cells have irregular shapes, whereas red blood cells have a distinct biconcave shape.
What distinctive feature is used to identify a neutrophil in a blood smear?
A distinctive lobed nucleus.
have very large nuclei that nearly occupy the entire cell.
Lymphocytes have very large nuclei that nearly occupy the entire cell.
When producing a biological drawing of a blood smear, what key principle must you follow about what you draw?
You must only ever draw what you see, and not what you think you see.
Which piece of apparatus should you use to accurately reflect the size and proportions of structures seen under the microscope?
The eyepiece graticule.
True or False: Individual cells are drawn in a plan diagram.
False — individual cells are never drawn in a plan diagram; plan drawings show tissues only.
True or False: Neutrophils make up roughly 70% of all white blood cells.
True
Lymphocyte
A type of white blood cell that provides the specific (third line of) immune response. Lymphocytes are smaller than phagocytes and have a large nucleus that fills most of the cell.
How does the specific immune response provided by lymphocytes compare with non-specific responses?
The specific immune response is slower but more effective than non-specific immune responses.
Where do T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes each mature?
T-lymphocytes (T cells) mature in the thymus gland\n\n- B-lymphocytes (B cells) mature in the bone marrow
Describe the maturation of T-lymphocytes.
Immature T-lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow\n\n- They move to the thymus gland in the chest, where they mature\n\n- During maturation they gain specific cell surface receptors called T cell receptors (TCRs), each complementary to a different antigen
T cell receptor (TCR)
A specific cell surface receptor gained by T cells during maturation. TCRs have a similar structure to antibodies and each is complementary to a different antigen, allowing T cells to recognise a wide range of foreign antigens.
A small number of T cells share the same T cell receptors; these genetically identical cells are called .
A small number of T cells share the same T cell receptors; these genetically identical cells are called clones.
Antigen-presenting cell (APC)
A cell, such as a macrophage that has engulfed a pathogen, which displays the pathogen's antigens on its own cell surface membrane so they can be recognised by T cells.
What happens during clonal selection of T cells?
T cells with T cell receptors that are complementary to the specific pathogenic antigen bind to the APC\n\n- These are the clones selected for replication\n\n- Binding to the complementary antigen causes the T cell to be activated
What occurs during clonal expansion of T cells?
Activated T cells divide by mitosis to produce clones. This produces many T cells in the blood, each with a specific role.
What is the role of T helper cells in the immune response?
T helper cells release chemical signalling molecules called interleukins (a type of cytokine), which:\n\n- Cause phagocyte activity to increase\n\n- Activate B cells
How do T killer cells destroy infected body cells?
They patrol the body and attach to the foreign antigens on the cell surface membranes of infected cells\n\n- They secrete toxic substances that kill the infected cell and the pathogen inside\n\n- Perforins punch a hole in the cell surface membrane, allowing toxins to enter
What is the role of T memory cells?
T memory cells remain in the blood, so that if the same antigen is encountered again, clonal selection occurs much more quickly, giving a faster response.
Perforins
Proteins secreted by T killer cells that punch a hole in the cell surface membrane of infected cells, allowing toxic substances to enter and destroy the cell.
True or False: Immature T-lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow before moving to the thymus gland to mature.
True
True or False: T killer cells release interleukins to activate B cells.
False — it is T helper cells that release interleukins to activate B cells; T killer cells destroy infected body cells using perforins and toxic substances.
B-lymphocytes (B cells)
White blood cells that mature in the bone marrow and carry out the antibody-mediated (humoral) part of the specific immune response.
Where do B-lymphocytes mature?
They remain in the bone marrow until they are mature.
What do B cells gain during maturation?
They gain specific cell surface receptors called B cell receptors (BCRs).
How does the antibody receptor on a B cell achieve specificity for an antigen?
Part of each antibody molecule forms a glycoprotein receptor that combines specifically with one type of antigen.
Clone (of B cells)
A small number of B cells that carry the same B cell receptors and are therefore genetically identical.
What is clonal selection of B cells?
B cells with complementary antibody receptors bind to antigens on antigen-presenting cells.
This binding is clonal selection.
Which cells can present the antigen that a B cell binds to during clonal selection?
Phagocytes
Infected cells
The pathogens themselves
What two things are needed to activate a B cell?
Binding of the B cell's antibody receptor to the antigen
Interleukins released by T helper cells
What is clonal expansion of B cells?
Activated B cells divide by mitosis to produce clones, giving large numbers of identical B-lymphocytes over a few weeks.
Activated B-lymphocytes divide by to produce clones of identical cells.
Activated B-lymphocytes divide by mitosis to produce clones of identical cells.
What is the role of the plasma cells produced when B-lymphocytes are activated?
Plasma cells secrete large numbers of antibody molecules (specific to the antigen) into the blood, lymph, or linings of the lungs and gut.
Plasma cell
A differentiated B-lymphocyte that secretes large numbers of antibody molecules specific to the antigen into the blood, lymph or linings of the lungs and gut.
Some activated B-lymphocytes become cells that remain circulating in the blood for a long time.
Some activated B-lymphocytes become memory cells that remain circulating in the blood for a long time.
Where do B-lymphocytes concentrate once they are mature?
They spread through the body, concentrating in the lymph nodes and the spleen.
What are the B cell receptors (BCRs) gained during maturation?
They are antibodies, sometimes called antibody receptors.
What is the role of the memory cells produced when B-lymphocytes are activated?
Memory cells remain circulating in the blood for a long time.
True or False: B-lymphocytes mature in the thymus.
False — B-lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow; it is T-lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.
True or False: A B cell is activated by antigen binding together with interleukins released by T helper cells.
True
Memory cells
T and B cells formed during clonal expansion that form the basis of immunological memory, remaining in the blood for many years (often a lifetime) to allow a rapid secondary immune response.
Immunological memory
The ability, made possible by memory cells, to mount a rapid response to a previously encountered antigen; the reason catching certain diseases twice is so unlikely.
Primary immune response
The immune response that occurs when the body responds to a newly encountered antigen for the first time.
Secondary immune response
The immune response that occurs when the body responds to a previously encountered antigen.
Why is there a considerable time delay during the primary immune response?
It takes considerable time and energy for:
The clonal selection and expansion of specific T cells and B cells
The synthesis of antibodies
Why do we often experience symptoms of a disease when first exposed to a pathogen?
Because of the time delay in the primary immune response, antibodies do not begin to appear in the blood until roughly 10 to 17 days after the antigen first enters the body, allowing the pathogen population to increase and cause symptoms.
During clonal expansion in the primary immune response, what do some B cells differentiate into, and how long-lived are they?
Some B cells differentiate into:
Plasma cells, which are short-lived
Memory cells, which remain circulating in the blood for a long time and allow a rapid secondary immune response
Describe the role of B memory cells in the secondary immune response.
If the same foreign antigen is found in the body a second time, the B memory cells recognise the antigen.
They divide very quickly and differentiate into plasma cells (to produce antibodies) and more memory cells.
This allows the infection to be destroyed and removed before the pathogen population increases too much and symptoms develop.
Why is the secondary immune response so much faster than the primary immune response?
There are more memory cells present to be selected than there were cells within the original clone that existed prior to the first infection. More memory cells can be selected, so more antibodies are produced within a short time period.
What two main types of memory T cell form during the secondary immune response, and what do they provide?
T-lymphocytes differentiate into:
Memory helper T cells
Memory killer T cells
These remain in the body for a long time and provide long-term immunity, becoming active very quickly if the same antigen is encountered again.
During the primary immune response, antibodies do not begin to appear in the blood until roughly after the foreign antigen first enters the body.
During the primary immune response, antibodies do not begin to appear in the blood until roughly 10 to 17 days after the foreign antigen first enters the body.
cells remain circulating in the blood for a long time and allow for a rapid secondary immune response.
Memory cells remain circulating in the blood for a long time and allow for a rapid secondary immune response.
Why can some diseases, such as measles, usually only be caught once, whereas the common cold and influenza can be caught repeatedly?
Measles has only one strain, so re-infection triggers a very fast secondary immune response and the person does not become ill.
The common cold and influenza are caused by viruses constantly developing into new strains; as each strain has different antigens, a primary immune response (during which we often become ill) must be carried out each time before immunity is achieved.
True or False: Plasma cells are short-lived.
True
True or False: Antibodies appear in the blood within hours of the primary immune response.
False — antibodies do not begin to appear until roughly 10 to 17 days after the antigen first enters the body.
Describe the basic structure of an antibody molecule.
Y-shaped molecule with a quaternary structure
Two heavy (long) polypeptide chains bonded by disulfide bonds to two light (short) polypeptide chains
Each chain has a constant region and a variable region
What type of bond holds the heavy and light polypeptide chains of an antibody together?
Disulfide bonds.
What is the role of the constant region of an antibody?
It does not vary within a class (isotype) of antibodies but varies between classes.
It determines the mechanism used to destroy the antigens.
Why does the variable region give an antibody its specificity?
The amino acid sequence of the variable region (the tips of the "Y") differs for each antibody.
This forms an antigen-binding site whose shape is complementary to one specific epitope, so the antibody binds to only one antigen.
Antigen-binding site
The site at the end of each variable region (formed from both the light and heavy chain ends) that is specific to one epitope, allowing the antibody to bind its antigen and form an antigen-antibody complex.
Epitope
The specific part of an antigen that binds to the antigen-binding site of an antibody.
What is the function of the 'hinge' region of an antibody?
The hinge region (where the disulfide bonds join the heavy chains) gives the molecule flexibility.
This allows the antigen-binding sites to be placed at different angles when binding to antigens. It is not present in all classes of antibody.
Antibodies are produced by .
Antibodies are produced by B-lymphocytes.
What is the overall function of antibodies in the body?
To destroy pathogens within the body, either directly or by recruiting other immune cells.
In what three ways can antibodies act to help destroy pathogens?
Anti-toxins
Opsonins
Agglutinins
Give three examples of substances or structures that can act as antigens.
Any three of:
Pathogens and their toxins
Pollen
Blood cell surface molecules
Surface proteins on transplanted tissues
Why might a single pathogen cause several different antibodies to be produced?
A pathogen or virus may present multiple different antigens.
Each antigen has a different epitope, so a different specific antibody must be produced for each one.
True or False: The constant region of an antibody gives it its specificity for one antigen.
False — the variable region, not the constant region, gives the antibody its specificity.
True or False: An antibody has a quaternary structure made of four polypeptide chains.
True — two heavy and two light chains held together by disulfide bonds.
Anti-toxin
An antibody that binds to a toxin produced by a pathogen (e.g. the bacteria causing diphtheria and tetanus), neutralising it and making it harmless.
Opsonin
An antibody that attaches to a pathogen (e.g. a bacterium) to make it more readily identifiable to phagocytes, promoting phagocytosis.
Agglutinin
An antibody that causes pathogens carrying antigen-antibody complexes to clump together (agglutination).
Opsonisation
The process in which antibodies attach to bacteria, marking them so that phagocytes can identify and engulf them more easily.
Agglutination
The clumping together of pathogens caused by agglutinin antibodies binding their antigens, reducing pathogen spread and allowing phagocytes to engulf many at once.
How do antibodies acting as anti-toxins protect the body?
They bind to toxins produced by pathogens, which neutralises the toxins and makes them harmless.
How can antibodies prevent viruses and toxins from harming cells directly?
They combine with the viruses and toxins, blocking them from entering or damaging the body's cells.
After opsonisation, how does a phagocyte recognise and engulf the antibody-coated bacterium?
The phagocyte has receptor proteins for the heavy polypeptide chains of the antibodies.
Binding to these receptors enables phagocytosis to occur.
How does an antibody binding to bacterial flagella help destroy the pathogen?
It makes the bacteria less mobile, which makes it easier for phagocytes to carry out phagocytosis.
Why is agglutination of pathogens beneficial to the immune response?
It reduces the chance that the pathogens will spread through the body
It allows phagocytes to engulf a number of pathogens at one time
How can antibodies (together with other molecules) cause lysis of a pathogen?
They create holes in the cell walls of the pathogen.
Water is then absorbed by osmosis, causing the pathogen to burst.
Antibodies that mark bacteria for easier recognition and engulfment by phagocytes are called .
Antibodies that mark bacteria for easier recognition and engulfment by phagocytes are called opsonins.
are antibodies that neutralise toxins produced by pathogens, making them harmless.
Anti-toxins are antibodies that neutralise toxins produced by pathogens, making them harmless.
True or False: Opsonins are antibodies that cause pathogens to clump together.
False — opsonins mark pathogens for phagocytosis; agglutinins cause clumping.
True or False: Antibodies acting as anti-toxins neutralise toxins produced by pathogens such as those causing diphtheria and tetanus.
True
Active immunity
Immunity acquired when an antigen enters the body and triggers a specific immune response, in which the person's own body produces antibodies.
Passive immunity
Immunity acquired without an immune response, in which antibodies are not produced by the person but are received ready-made from another source.
What is the difference between naturally and artificially acquired active immunity?
Natural active immunity is acquired through exposure to microbes (an actual infection)
Artificial active immunity is acquired through vaccination
Why does active immunity provide long-term protection?
In both natural and artificial active immunity the body produces memory cells (along with plasma cells), which remain in the body and give long-term immunity.
During the primary immune response, how long does the antibody concentration in the blood take to increase?
One to two weeks.
How does the secondary immune response differ from the primary response when the same pathogen invades again?
During the secondary response the antibody concentration in the blood:
Increases over a much shorter period of time
Reaches a higher concentration than after the first infection or vaccination
Why does passive immunity not provide long-term protection?
The person's immune system has not been activated, so no memory cells are produced. If the person is reinfected they would need another infusion of antibodies.
How is artificial passive immunity acquired? Give an example.
It is acquired by an injection / transfusion of ready-made antibodies.
For example, a person infected with tetanus is given an antitoxin (antibodies collected from people whose immune systems had been triggered by vaccination to produce tetanus antibodies).
What are the two ways in which natural passive immunity is acquired?
A foetus receives antibodies from the mother across the placenta
A baby receives antibodies (the IgA isotype) in the first breast milk, the colostrum
Why might passive immunity be needed for a disease such as tetanus rather than relying on active immunity?
There may not be enough time to actively acquire immunity, as producing antibodies via active immunity takes one to two weeks. Passive immunity provides ready-made antibodies immediately.
Babies receive antibodies in the first breast milk, known as the , which delivers the IgA isotype of antibody.
Babies receive antibodies in the first breast milk, known as the colostrum, which delivers the IgA isotype of antibody.
In active immunity the body produces the antibodies, whereas in immunity the body is given the antibodies.
In active immunity the body produces the antibodies, whereas in passive immunity the body is given the antibodies.
True or False: Passive immunity produces memory cells that provide long-term protection.
False — passive immunity does not activate the immune system, so no memory cells are produced.
True or False: During the secondary immune response, antibodies are produced more rapidly and reach a higher concentration than in the primary response.
True
Autoimmune disease
A condition in which the immune system damages the body's own cells because it recognises self-antigens as foreign.
Self-antigen
An antigen found on the surface of an organism's own cells, which the immune system normally recognises as belonging to the body rather than as foreign.
Susceptibility (to an autoimmune disease)
The likelihood of an individual developing the disease when exposed to a specific pathogen or stimulus.
In an autoimmune disease, which components of the immune system attack the body's own cells?
Antibodies
T cells (both helper and cytotoxic)
B cells
These attack one or more self-antigens.
What is the role of glycoproteins and glycolipids on the cell surface in relation to the immune system?
They act as surface antigens that enable the immune system to determine whether a cell belongs to the body or is foreign.
Can an autoimmune attack be directed at a single organ, the whole body, or both?
Both. The attack can be targeted at a single organ or directed at the entire body.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
An autoimmune disease that solely affects the joints.
State some symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis.
Muscle spasms
Inflamed tendons
Lethargy
Constant joint pain
Which two broad factors are thought to influence the development of autoimmune diseases?
Genetics – susceptibility to an autoimmune disease can be inherited
Environment – research suggests environmental factors are also important
How does evidence from migration studies suggest that the environment influences autoimmune disease?
When individuals moved from areas of low autoimmune disease prevalence (e.g. Japan) to areas of higher prevalence (e.g. the USA), they showed an increased chance of developing an autoimmune disease.
This suggests environmental factors, not just genetics, play a role.
In an autoimmune disease, antibodies, T cells and B cells attack one or more found on the body's own cells.
In an autoimmune disease, antibodies, T cells and B cells attack one or more self-antigens found on the body's own cells.
to an autoimmune disease has been shown to be inherited, indicating that genetics is an influencing factor.
Susceptibility to an autoimmune disease has been shown to be inherited, indicating that genetics is an influencing factor.
In which parts of the body does rheumatoid arthritis usually begin, and where does it spread to?
It usually begins in the fingers and hands, then spreads to the shoulders and elsewhere.
True or False: Around 5% of the British population suffer from an autoimmune disease.
True
True or False: Rheumatoid arthritis is the same condition as osteoarthritis.
False — rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease of the joints, whereas osteoarthritis is a different, non-autoimmune condition.
Vaccine
A suspension of antigens intentionally put into the body to induce artificial active immunity — a specific immune response in which antibodies are released by plasma cells.
Herd immunity
When a large proportion of the population has been vaccinated (and is therefore immune), making it difficult for a pathogen to spread. Those who are not immunised are protected because levels of the disease are so low.
Ring immunity
When people living or working near a vulnerable (or infected) person are vaccinated to prevent them catching and transmitting the disease. The vaccinated individuals do not spread the pathogen, so vulnerable individuals "within the ring" are protected.
What are the two main types of vaccine?
Live attenuated vaccines
Inactivated vaccines
How do vaccinations produce long-term immunity?
They cause memory cells to be created.
When the antigen is re-encountered, the immune system produces antibodies in a faster, stronger secondary response.
Describe the features of a live attenuated vaccine.
Contains whole pathogens that have been 'weakened'
The weakened pathogens multiply slowly, allowing the body to recognise the antigens and trigger the primary immune response
Tends to produce a stronger and longer-lasting immune response
Can be unsuitable for people with weak immune systems, as the pathogen may divide before sufficient antibodies are produced (e.g. MMR)
Describe the features of an inactivated vaccine.
Contains whole pathogens that have been killed ('whole killed') or small subunit parts of the pathogen (e.g. proteins, sugars or toxoids)
Cannot cause disease, so is safe even for those with weak immune systems
Produces a weaker, shorter-lasting response, so repeated / booster doses are often required (e.g. polio, diphtheria)
Why are vaccines critical in controlling the spread of viruses?
Very few drugs are effective against viruses, so vaccines are one of the only reliable ways to control the spread of viral disease.
Give reasons why vaccines can sometimes fail to give protection.
People have a poor response (e.g. malnutrition or a defective immune system means they cannot produce enough antibodies)
Antigenic variation — changes in pathogen antigens mean the vaccine no longer triggers an immune response; eukaryotic pathogens (e.g. malaria) have too many antigens
Viruses can change their surface antigens (the targets of vaccines)
Distinguish between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.
Antigenic drift — over time there are small changes in the structure and shape of the antigens (within the same strain of virus).
Antigenic shift — there are major changes in the antigens.
By what methods can pathogens achieve antigenic concealment (hide from the immune system)?
Living inside cells
Coating their bodies in host proteins
Parasitising immune cells such as macrophages and T cells (e.g. HIV)
Remaining in parts of the body that are difficult for vaccines to reach (e.g. Vibrio cholerae in the small intestine)
Why is it difficult to eradicate some infectious diseases, even when a vaccine exists?
Too few people in the community have been vaccinated
Unstable political situations (e.g. civil unrest or war)
Lack of public health facilities (poor infrastructure, few trained personnel, limited financial resources)
Why was the eradication of smallpox successful?
The virus was stable — it did not mutate, so its surface antigens did not change and one vaccine could be used worldwide
The live attenuated vaccine could be freeze-dried and stayed viable at high temperatures, suiting the tropics
Symptoms made infected people easy to identify (surveillance was possible)
Humans were the only reservoir and there were no carriers, making it easier to break the transmission pathway
The principles underpinning vaccination were discovered by in the 1700s, when he developed the first smallpox vaccine.
The principles underpinning vaccination were discovered by Edward Jenner in the 1700s, when he developed the first smallpox vaccine.
True or False: Vaccines cause memory cells to be produced, giving a faster, stronger secondary response on re-exposure.
True
True or False: Live attenuated vaccines contain whole pathogens that have been killed.
False — live attenuated vaccines contain weakened whole pathogens; it is inactivated vaccines that contain killed pathogens.
Why are scientists continually searching for new antibiotics?
Because there is a worrying increase in strains of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, meaning existing antibiotics are becoming less effective.
State four ways in which new drugs can be discovered and developed.
Analysing an organism's genome to find candidate genes that may code for potential drugs
Identifying molecules that fit into drug targets (e.g. receptors and hormones, or neurotransmitters and synapses)
Modifying existing drugs using computer programmes that model molecular structures
Identifying useful compounds produced by organisms (e.g. fungi, plants, animals and actinobacteria)
How can analysis of an organism's genome help in discovering new drugs?
The genome can be analysed to find candidate genes that may code for potential drugs.
Which two groups of microorganisms have provided many of our antibiotics?
Bacteria and fungi.
How do rifamycins, discovered in marine actinobacteria, kill bacteria?
They kill bacteria by inhibiting bacterial transcription.
What is artemisinin?
Artemisinin is a drug found in Sweet wormwood that treats malaria.
What is quinidine used to treat?
Quinidine, derived from the Quinine tree, treats a fast heart rate.
Why is maintaining global biodiversity a strong argument for drug discovery?
Continued access to existing drugs and the discovery of new ones depends on the survival of species.
Microorganism and plant species may become extinct before we can discover what drugs they could provide.
Personalised medicine
The development of more targeted, personalised drugs to treat human diseases (as well as synthetic tissues), rather than a "one type fits all" approach.
Genomic medicine
The use of information about an individual's genes to influence their clinical care, for example prescribing the most effective drugs based on their genome.
Using isoniazid (used to treat TB) as an example, explain why the same drug can vary in effectiveness between individuals.
Some individuals metabolise the drug slowly, making it an effective treatment.
Others metabolise it much faster, making it ineffective.
How can differences in DNA base sequences between individuals affect their response to a drug?
They can affect the tertiary structure of the proteins targeted by drugs, altering how effectively the drug works.
Herceptin is an antibody drug used to treat some breast cancers. A patient is only given the drug if they are found to have high numbers of a specific cell surface .
Herceptin is an antibody drug used to treat some breast cancers. A patient is only given the drug if they are found to have high numbers of a specific cell surface receptor.
How does genetic screening act as a form of personalised medicine?
It identifies individuals with a high chance of developing specific diseases, so that preventative measures can be taken.
How does artemisinin work to treat malaria?
It kills the pathogen while it is inside the red blood cells.
How does quinidine work to treat a fast heart rate?
It blocks channel proteins in cardiac muscle to reduce impulse conduction.
True or False: rifamycins kill bacteria by inhibiting bacterial translation.
False — rifamycins inhibit bacterial transcription, not translation.
True or False: information from genetic testing can be used to divide a population into subgroups according to how they are likely to respond to specific drugs.
True — this helps ensure individuals receive effective drugs with the least side effects.
Antibiotic
A chemical substance that inhibits or kills bacterial cells with little or no harm to human tissue.
Bactericidal antibiotic
An antibiotic that kills bacteria.
Bacteriostatic antibiotic
An antibiotic that inhibits the growth processes of bacteria (rather than killing them directly).
Broad-spectrum antibiotic
An antibiotic that acts on a wide range of bacteria (e.g. amoxicillin).
Narrow-spectrum antibiotic
An antibiotic that acts on a very small number of bacteria, used when a culture has shown which bacterium is causing the infection.
Why can antibiotics harm bacterial cells with little or no harm to human tissue?
Antibiotics target prokaryotic features (structural or physiological) that are harmful to prokaryotic cells but usually do not affect eukaryotic (human) cells.
Who discovered the first antibiotic, what was it, and when?
Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered, in 1928, by Sir Alexander Fleming.
Explain how a population of bacteria can become antibiotic-resistant (natural selection).
Within a population there is genetic diversity; random mutation can produce an allele that confers resistance (not caused by antibiotic use)
When an antibiotic is present, resistant individuals have a selective advantage and are more likely to survive and reproduce
Non-resistant bacteria are more likely to die and not reproduce
Resistance alleles are passed to offspring, so over several generations the whole population may become antibiotic-resistant
How have some bacteria become resistant to penicillin?
They have acquired genes coding for the enzyme β-lactamase (penicillinase), which breaks down penicillin.
Why does a new resistance allele show immediately in a bacterium's phenotype?
Bacteria have a single loop of DNA with only one copy of each gene, so a new allele is not masked and is immediately displayed in the phenotype.
State the main factors that have led to increased antibiotic resistance.
Overuse of antibiotics / prescribing them when not necessary
Large-scale use in farming to prevent disease, even when livestock are not sick
Patients failing to complete the full course of antibiotics
Describe ways to reduce the development of antibiotic resistance.
Only prescribe antibiotics when absolutely necessary and test the bacteria first
Patients should finish the entire course even if they feel better
Do not use antibiotics for viral infections
Use narrow-spectrum rather than broad-spectrum antibiotics where possible
Change the antibiotics prescribed so the same one is not always used
Reduce and tightly control antibiotic use in agriculture
How can the spread of already-resistant strains (e.g. MRSA) be limited in hospitals?
Good hygiene practices such as handwashing and use of hand sanitisers
Isolating infected patients to prevent spread, especially in surgical wards
Resistance alleles can pass between bacteria of different species on small circular pieces of DNA called , an example of horizontal gene transfer.
Resistance alleles can pass between bacteria of different species on small circular pieces of DNA called plasmids, an example of horizontal gene transfer.
True or False: Antibiotics can be used to treat viral infections.
False — antibiotics have no effect on viruses; they only target bacteria.
True or False: Failing to complete a full course of antibiotics can contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance.
True — surviving bacteria may include resistant individuals that then reproduce.
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