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Tropism
A growth response of a part of a plant in response to a directional stimulus.

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What is the difference between a positive tropism and a negative tropism?
A positive tropism is growth towards a stimulus
A negative tropism is growth away from a stimulus
Name five types of tropism shown by plants.
Phototropism
Geotropism (also known as gravitropism)
Hydrotropism
Thigmotropism
Chemotropism
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Tropism
A growth response of a part of a plant in response to a directional stimulus.
What is the difference between a positive tropism and a negative tropism?
A positive tropism is growth towards a stimulus
A negative tropism is growth away from a stimulus
Name five types of tropism shown by plants.
Phototropism
Geotropism (also known as gravitropism)
Hydrotropism
Thigmotropism
Chemotropism
Give four examples of abiotic stress that plants can respond to.
Freezing
Drought
Increased soil water salinity
Presence of heavy metals (e.g. lead, copper, zinc, mercury)
How do plants respond to drought to reduce water loss by transpiration?
Shutting stomata
Dropping leaves
How do some plants respond to freezing temperatures?
They produce an antifreeze chemical in their cells that decreases the formation of ice crystals.
Herbivory is an example of which type of stress factor?
A biotic stress factor.
Name two types of chemical that plants can produce as a defence against herbivory.
Alkaloids (e.g. caffeine, nicotine)
Pheromones
How do alkaloids defend a plant against herbivory?
Alkaloids are bitter-tasting or toxic, either deterring or killing herbivores.
How can pheromones act as a chemical defence against herbivory?
As a signal to nearby plants of the same species that they are under attack from herbivores, triggering other defences
As a signal to attract a herbivorous insect's natural predators
Describe how a touch-sensitive plant such as Mimosa pudica responds to touch.
The leaflets of the touch-sensitive leaves fold rapidly when touched.
What is thought to cause the very rapid touch response seen in touch-sensitive plants?
Local bioelectrical signals.
The environmental stimuli to which plants respond can be either abiotic or .
The environmental stimuli to which plants respond can be either abiotic or biotic.
Why is producing an antifreeze chemical important for plants in freezing conditions?
It decreases the formation of ice crystals, which can destroy plant cells if allowed to form within them.
Suggest why a touch-sensitive plant such as Mimosa pudica folds its leaflets when touched.
It may be an adaptation to protect the leaflets from herbivorous insects, or it could reduce transpiration when the leaves are no longer photosynthesising.
True or False: Herbivory is an example of an abiotic stress factor.
False — herbivory is a biotic stress factor.
True or False: A positive tropism is a growth response towards a directional stimulus.
True
Coleoptile
A protective sheath that surrounds the young growing shoot of grass plants, often used in historical phototropism experiments.
Positive phototropism
Growth of a plant organ towards a light stimulus. Plant shoots are positively phototropic, which maximises the light they can absorb for photosynthesis.
What did Darwin's experiment (1880) demonstrate about phototropism?
Removing the tip of a coleoptile, or covering it with an opaque cap, stopped the phototropic response to unidirectional light.
This showed that the tip of the coleoptile is responsible for detecting light.
What did Boysen-Jensen's experiment (1913) show using gelatin and mica barriers?
A gelatin block placed between the cut tip and coleoptile restored the response, so the growth stimulus is a chemical (hormone) that can diffuse through it
An impermeable mica barrier stopped the response only when placed on the shaded side
This showed the hormone is made at the tip, travels down the shaded side, and causes growth there
What did Paál's experiment (1919) demonstrate?
A cut coleoptile tip replaced off-centre in the dark caused the coleoptile to curve, with more growth on the side under the tip.
This showed the phototropic response is caused by a hormone diffusing through the tissue and stimulating growth.
What did Went's experiment (1926) add to our understanding of the growth hormone?
Went let the tip's hormones diffuse into a gelatin block, then placed the block off-centre on a coleoptile in the dark, causing it to curve.
The greater the hormone concentration in the block, the more the coleoptile curved.
Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
A specific plant growth factor and type of auxin, synthesised in the growing tips (meristems) of roots and shoots, that coordinates tropisms by controlling growth by elongation.
How does IAA cause cell elongation at a molecular level?
IAA activates proteins in the cell wall called expansins.
Expansins loosen the bonds between cellulose microfibrils, making the cell wall more flexible so the cell can elongate.
Explain how IAA causes a shoot to bend towards a unidirectional light source.
IAA moves from the illuminated side of the shoot to the shaded side
In shoots, a higher IAA concentration causes a greater rate of cell elongation
The shaded side therefore elongates faster than the illuminated side, bending the shoot towards the light
In shoots, a higher concentration of IAA results in a rate of cell elongation.
In shoots, a higher concentration of IAA results in a greater rate of cell elongation.
Why do shoots show negative geotropism (grow away from gravity)?
Gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the lower side of the shoot.
In shoots, IAA increases the rate of cell elongation, so the lower side grows faster and the shoot bends upwards.
Why do roots show positive geotropism (grow towards gravity)?
Gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the lower side of the root.
In roots, a high IAA concentration inhibits cell elongation, so the lower side grows slower than the upper side, bending the root downwards.
In roots, higher concentrations of IAA result in a rate of cell elongation.
In roots, higher concentrations of IAA result in a lower rate of cell elongation.
In the practical investigating IAA on root growth, why do root tips with their ends removed (Group A) grow evenly and longest?
IAA is synthesised in the root tips, so removing them means no IAA is produced.
With no IAA there is no inhibition of cell elongation, so the roots grow evenly on both sides and longer than tips that still produce IAA.
True or False: In roots, a high concentration of IAA stimulates cell elongation.
False — in roots a high IAA concentration inhibits cell elongation.
True or False: Boysen-Jensen's experiment showed the growth stimulus is a chemical that travels down the shaded side of the coleoptile.
True
Abscission layer
A layer of parenchyma cells with thin walls that develops at the base of the leaf stalk. The weak, easily broken walls allow the leaf to drop off during leaf loss.
Why do deciduous plants lose their leaves in hot, dry conditions?
Leaf loss reduces water loss.
In temperate climates, what environmental change triggers the hormonal response leading to leaf loss?
Shortening day length in the autumn.
What is the role of ethene in leaf loss?
Ethene stimulates the breakdown of cell walls in the abscission layer, causing the leaf to drop off.
How do auxins influence leaf loss?
Auxins are produced in young leaves and normally inhibit leaf loss by making the leaf stalks insensitive to ethene.
During times of water stress, the hormone is produced to stimulate the closing of stomata.
During times of water stress, the hormone abscisic acid (ABA) is produced to stimulate the closing of stomata.
How does ABA cause the initial changes in guard cells that lead to stomatal closure?
ABA binds to receptors on the guard cell surface membranes\n\n- This inhibits the proton pumps, stopping the active transport of H⁺ ions out of the guard cells\n\n- ABA also causes Ca²⁺ ions to move into the cytoplasm of the guard cells
During stomatal closure, how do calcium ions act as second messengers in guard cells?
They open channel proteins that let negatively charged ions leave the guard cells\n\n- They open further channel proteins that let K⁺ ions leave the guard cells\n\n- They close channel proteins that would allow K⁺ ions to enter the guard cells
Once guard cells have lost ions, how does this lead to the stomata closing?
The loss of ions increases the water potential of the guard cells\n\n- Water leaves the guard cells by osmosis\n\n- The guard cells become flaccid, causing the stomata to close
What two processes are gibberellins involved in controlling?
Seed germination and stem elongation.
Describe the three main components of a barley seed and their functions.
Embryo – grows into the new plant when the seed germinates\n\n- Endosperm – a starch-containing energy store surrounding the embryo\n\n- Aleurone layer – a protein-rich layer on the outer edge of the endosperm
Explain how gibberellins trigger the germination of a barley seed.
The seed absorbs water, stimulating the embryo to produce gibberellins\n\n- Gibberellins diffuse into the aleurone layer and stimulate the cells to synthesise amylase (by increasing transcription of mRNA coding for amylase)\n\n- Amylase hydrolyses starch in the endosperm into soluble maltose\n\n- Maltose is converted to glucose and transported to the embryo\n\n- The embryo respires the glucose, breaking dormancy and providing energy for growth
How do abscisic acid and gibberellins together determine when a seed germinates?
Abscisic acid has the opposite effect to gibberellins, maintaining dormancy by inhibiting amylase production\n\n- The start of germination is therefore determined by the balance of abscisic acid and gibberellins present in the seed
Seed dormancy
A state in which a shed seed contains very little water and is metabolically inactive, allowing it to survive harsh conditions until the conditions are right for successful germination.
Why do deciduous plants lose their leaves during temperate winters?
Water absorption is difficult due to frozen soils, and photosynthesis is limited by low temperatures and reduced light.
How does the effect of auxins on leaf loss change as a leaf ages?
As the leaf ages, the concentration of auxins decreases, until leaf loss can occur in response to ethene.
True or False: Auxins make leaf stalks more sensitive to ethene, promoting leaf loss.
False — auxins make leaf stalks insensitive to ethene, so they normally inhibit leaf loss.
True or False: Abscisic acid and gibberellins have opposing effects on seed germination.
True
Auxin
A plant hormone (growth regulator) produced at the growing tip at the apex of a plant stem that promotes upward stem growth and inhibits the growth of lateral (side) buds.
Apical dominance
The inhibition of lateral (side) bud growth by auxins produced at the apex (growing tip) of a plant stem, ensuring that growth is preferentially upwards.
Where in a plant are the auxins responsible for apical dominance produced?
At the growing tip, at the apex (the top) of the plant stem.
What are the two main effects of auxins produced at the apex of a plant stem?
They cause the stem to grow upwards
They stop lateral (side) buds from growing
Why is it advantageous for a plant to grow preferentially upwards rather than sideways?
Growing upwards towards the light ensures the plant has access to more energy for photosynthesis.
Sideways growth is usually not as useful, so apical dominance ensures growth is preferentially upwards.
What happens to the lateral buds if the growing tip at the apex of a plant is removed (e.g. by grazing)?
The lateral buds begin to grow, because the source of auxins has been removed and there is no longer apical dominance.
After the apex is removed and lateral shoots grow, how does the plant still manage to grow upwards?
With time, the lateral shoots that grow from the lateral buds curl up towards the light, meaning the plant continues to grow in an upwards direction.
If the growing tip at the apex of a plant is removed, lateral buds grow because there is no longer .
If the growing tip at the apex of a plant is removed, lateral buds grow because there is no longer apical dominance.
Describe how an experiment can demonstrate that auxins cause apical dominance.
The apical bud of the first test plant is removed (decapitated) — this allows the lateral buds to grow
A second, genetically identical plant is decapitated, but the cut tip is immediately replaced with an agar block containing auxin
This restores the inhibition of lateral bud growth, so no lateral buds grow
In the apical dominance experiment, why is an agar block containing auxin (rather than a plain agar block) placed on the cut tip of the decapitated plant?
The auxin in the agar block replaces the auxin normally supplied by the apex, restoring apical dominance so that no lateral buds grow — showing it is the auxin, not the physical tip, that inhibits lateral bud growth.
Auxins produced at the apex of a stem stop from growing.
Auxins produced at the apex of a stem stop lateral (side) buds from growing.
True or False: Auxins are produced at the growing tip at the apex of a plant stem.
True — auxins are produced at the growing tip at the apex of the stem.
True or False: Auxins from the apex stimulate lateral (side) buds to grow.
False — auxins from the apex inhibit lateral bud growth, causing apical dominance.
Gibberellins
A group of plant hormones that help plants grow by stimulating cell division and elongation in the stem, and that stimulate seed germination.
How do gibberellins bring about stem growth?
By stimulating cell division and cell elongation in the stem.
What has been observed about gibberellin levels in dwarf plant varieties?
Dwarf plant varieties have very low levels of gibberellins.
Why do dwarf plant varieties often have low levels of gibberellins?
Because of a mutation in a gene involved in the synthesis of gibberellins.
What happens when dwarf plant varieties are treated with gibberellins under experimental conditions?
They grow to the same height as normal varieties.\n\nThis provides experimental evidence for the role of gibberellin in stem elongation.
Why might farmers apply gibberellin to shorter plants?
To stimulate their growth.
Gibberellins stimulate germination and the breaking of in seeds.
Gibberellins stimulate germination and the breaking of dormancy in seeds.
How does experimental evidence using Arabidopsis support the role of gibberellin in seed germination?
Seeds of mutant Arabidopsis varieties that do not produce gibberellins can be induced to germinate if gibberellins are applied.
How does experimental evidence using lettuce seeds support the role of gibberellin in seed germination?
Certain lettuce varieties that require light to germinate can be made to germinate in the dark if gibberellins are applied.
True or False: Dwarf plant varieties typically have high levels of gibberellins.
False — dwarf varieties have very low levels of gibberellins, often due to a mutation in a gibberellin-synthesis gene.
Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA)
An auxin (a type of plant hormone) that is often used as a rooting powder to promote root growth.
What is the aim of the practical investigating IBA on plant growth?
To investigate the effect of different concentrations of the plant hormone IBA (an auxin) on root growth.
Why must the IBA solution be made using alcohol rather than water?
Because IBA is insoluble in water, so it must be dissolved in alcohol instead.
How is a serial dilution of the 5% IBA solution (Solution A) carried out?
Each successive dilution is 10-fold, made in alcohol:\n\n- Solution B (0.5%): add 1 cm³ of Solution A to 9 cm³ of alcohol\n\n- Solution C (0.05%): add 1 cm³ of Solution B to 9 cm³ of alcohol\n\n- Solution D (0.005%): add 1 cm³ of Solution C to 9 cm³ of alcohol\n\n- Solution E (0.0005%): add 1 cm³ of Solution D to 9 cm³ of alcohol
A serial dilution is made by transferring 1 cm³ of solution into of alcohol to achieve each 10-fold dilution.
A serial dilution is made by transferring 1 cm³ of solution into 9 cm³ of alcohol to achieve each 10-fold dilution.
How are the stem cuttings treated with each IBA solution?
The dipped-end down method is used:\n\n- Dip the ends of 10 cuttings into a solution\n\n- Place these cuttings into soil or compost, dipped-end down\n\n- Repeat with each IBA solution (A to E), using a fresh set of 10 cuttings each time
How is the control group set up in this investigation?
The final 10 cuttings are dipped in the alcohol used to make the IBA solutions (containing no IBA), then placed into soil, dipped-end down.
The cuttings in the control group are dipped in only, to check the effect is due to the hormone and not the solvent.
The cuttings in the control group are dipped in alcohol only, to check the effect is due to the hormone and not the solvent.
After the set growth period, how is root growth measured for each set of cuttings?
Carefully remove all the cuttings, then for each set of 10 cuttings remove all the roots and weigh them using a digital balance to find the mass of roots grown.
How should the results of this investigation be plotted on a graph?
Concentration of auxin (IBA) on the x-axis\n\n- Mass of roots grown on the y-axis\n\nThis shows the effect of different hormone concentrations on root growth.
Which factors must be controlled throughout this investigation?
Volume of water provided to each set of cuttings\n\n- Temperature\n\n- Humidity\n\n- Light intensity\n\nThese are controlled so that the concentration of plant hormone is the only variable affecting root growth.
Why should the cuttings be taken from the same species and, ideally, genetically identical plants?
So that all the cuttings respond to the hormone in the same way. Cuttings from genetically dissimilar plants may respond differently, introducing another variable.
Why is a control group used in this investigation?
It ensures any effect on root growth is due to the hormone, not the alcohol it was dissolved in.
True or False: IBA is an auxin that can be used as a rooting powder to promote root growth.
True
True or False: IBA is dissolved in water to make the dilution series.
False — IBA is insoluble in water, so it is dissolved in alcohol.
Why are plant hormones of great interest to those growing plants on a commercial scale?
Because the growth and development of plants is controlled by hormones, so these hormones can be used to benefit commercial plant growing in a variety of ways.
State three commercial uses of plant hormones.
As selective weed killers
As rooting powders
To control ripening
Explain how auxins act as selective weed killers.
Although auxins are normally growth-promoting, at high concentrations they cause such rapid growth that plant tissues (e.g. the roots) become distorted and damaged.
This damage allows pathogens to enter the plant, killing the weed.
Why can selective weed killers made from synthetic auxins remove broadleaved weeds from cereal crops or grass lawns without harming the crop or grass?
Grasses are significantly less sensitive to these selective weed killers than broadleaved weeds.
The broadleaved weeds die while the grasses (cereal crops or lawn) remain behind.
Synthetic auxins used as selective weed killers are applied to plants in concentrations greater than the natural hormones found in plants.
Synthetic auxins used as selective weed killers are applied to plants in concentrations 100 times greater than the natural hormones found in plants.
How are auxins used in rooting powders?
At low doses, auxins stimulate cuttings to grow new roots.
The lower end of the cutting is dipped in the powder before being planted in compost; with the correct environmental conditions, roots begin to grow shortly afterwards.
Rooting powder
A commercial product containing auxins (at the correct low dosage) into which the lower end of a cutting is dipped to stimulate the growth of new roots.
Which plant hormone is used to control the ripening of fruit, and what does it do?
Ethene is used to stimulate fruit to ripen.
Explain how ethene is used commercially to allow delicate fruits (e.g. bananas and tomatoes) to be transported without damage.
Delicate fruits are soft when ripe and are easily damaged during transport.
Instead, they are harvested when unripe (and therefore harder), then transported.
They are ripened artificially using ethene during transport or once they reach their destination.
Which hormones can be used to make unpollinated flowers develop fruit?
Auxins and gibberellins can make unpollinated flowers develop fruit (which in nature normally only occurs after pollination and fertilisation).
Parthenocarpic fruit
A fruit formed without fertilisation, e.g. seedless grapes produced using auxins and gibberellins.
How can auxins be used to reduce fruit losses before harvest?
Auxins can be used to stop trees from dropping their fruit before it has been harvested.
This is useful because dropped fruit becomes bruised and soon rots on the ground, making it no longer usable.
Why is it useful to make unpollinated flowers develop fruit?
It allows the production of seedless fruits (e.g. seedless grapes).
True or False: synthetic auxin weed killers affect grasses and broadleaved weeds equally.
False — grasses are much less sensitive than broadleaved weeds, so the weeds die while the grass survives.
True or False: ethene is used to ripen delicate fruits artificially so they can be harvested unripe and transported without damage.
True
What are the two main structural divisions of the human nervous system?
Central nervous system (CNS) – the brain and the spinal cord
Peripheral nervous system (PNS) – all of the nerves in the body
Central nervous system (CNS)
The part of the nervous system consisting of the brain and the spinal cord, which acts as the decision-making centre.
Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
The part of the nervous system made up of all of the nerves in the body outside the brain and spinal cord.
What is the overall role of the human nervous system?
To allow us to make sense of our surroundings and respond to them, and to coordinate and regulate body functions.
What is the difference between a nerve and a neurone?
A neurone is a nerve cell that carries nerve impulses.
A nerve is a bundle of neurones.
Information is sent through the nervous system as nerve impulses, which are signals that pass along neurones.
Information is sent through the nervous system as nerve impulses, which are electrical signals that pass along neurones.
Which three types of structure do neurones coordinate the activities of?
Sensory receptors (e.g. those in the eye)
Decision-making centres in the central nervous system
Effectors, such as muscles and glands
What are the two functional divisions of the nervous system?
The somatic nervous system
The autonomic nervous system
What is the function of the somatic nervous system?
It is required for the voluntary control of body movements.
Describe the three types of nerve that make up the somatic nervous system.
Sensory nerves – consist of sensory neurones; carry impulses from sense organs to the CNS
Motor nerves – consist of motor neurones; carry impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands
Spinal nerves – mixed nerves in the spinal cord that consist of both sensory and motor neurones
What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?
It is a self-controlling system required for involuntary actions and functions.
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
The sympathetic nervous system
The parasympathetic nervous system
How does the sympathetic nervous system bring about the 'fight-or-flight' response?
It controls the release of adrenaline (a hormone produced by the adrenal glands).
Adrenaline causes the heart rate to increase, raising blood supply to respiring muscles.
This gives the muscles more oxygen and glucose for respiration, enabling an immediate high-intensity response such as running away.
Adrenaline
A hormone produced by the adrenal glands, released under control of the sympathetic nervous system during a fight-or-flight response; it increases heart rate.
What type of actions does the autonomic nervous system control?
It controls actions such as heart rate, regulation of blood vessel diameter, and peristalsis in the gut.
What does each division of the autonomic nervous system control?
The sympathetic nervous system controls 'fight-or-flight' responses
The parasympathetic nervous system controls the 'rest and digest' system
True or False: A nerve is a single nerve cell that carries impulses.
False — a nerve is a bundle of neurones (nerve cells).
True or False: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions such as heart rate.
True
Which two structures make up the central nervous system (CNS)?
The brain and the spinal cord.
Name the five main regions of the human brain.
The cerebrum
The hypothalamus
The pituitary gland
The cerebellum
The medulla oblongata
What is the function of the cerebrum?
The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and controls conscious activities.
Corpus callosum
The band of nerve fibres that joins the two cerebral hemispheres together.
How does each cerebral hemisphere control the body?
The right hemisphere controls the left side of the body, and the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body.
Cerebral cortex (grey matter)
The thin, highly folded outer layer of the cerebrum, consisting of the cell bodies of neurones.
Explain why the folding of the cerebral cortex is important.
Folding increases the surface area of the cortex, allowing it to contain a greater number of neurones.
More neurones allow more connections to be made between them.
This increases the brain's ability to carry out more complex behaviours.
Beneath the grey matter of the cerebrum is the white matter, which consists of the of neurones.
Beneath the grey matter of the cerebrum is the white matter, which consists of the myelinated axons of neurones.
State four main functions of the hypothalamus.
Regulating body temperature (monitoring blood temperature)
Osmoregulation (monitoring blood concentration; stimulating ADH release)
Regulating digestive activity (controlling gut enzyme secretion and peristalsis; generating hunger)
Controlling endocrine functions (stimulating the pituitary gland to release hormones)
How does the hypothalamus respond to monitoring the blood flowing through it?
It releases hormones involved in homeostasis itself, or stimulates the pituitary gland to release certain hormones.
What are the roles of the anterior and posterior pituitary?
Anterior pituitary — produces and releases certain hormones.
Posterior pituitary — stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus (e.g. ADH and oxytocin).
What does the cerebellum control?
The cerebellum controls motor coordination, including balance.
Name the three 'centres' of the medulla oblongata and state what each controls.
Cardiac centre — controls heart rate
Vasomotor centre — controls blood pressure
Respiratory centre — controls breathing rate
The is found at the very base of the brain, where it joins the spinal cord.
The medulla oblongata is found at the very base of the brain, where it joins the spinal cord.
What types of activities does the cerebrum control?
Conscious activities, such as vision, hearing, speech, thinking and memory.
Does the cerebellum act consciously or subconsciously?
It functions only subconsciously — all the actions it controls are involuntary.
True or False: The cerebrum accounts for about 80% of the total mass of the brain.
True
True or False: The cerebellum controls conscious, voluntary movements.
False — the cerebellum functions only subconsciously, controlling involuntary actions.
Reflex action
An involuntary (automatic) response to a stimulus that is very fast and usually has a protective purpose or survival value.
Give some examples of reflex actions carried out by the human body.
Yawning
Saliva production
Swallowing
Pulling a body part away from a source of pain (the withdrawal reflex)
Blinking
Constricting the iris muscles in response to bright light (the pupil reflex)
Why are some actions, such as blinking, not always classed as reflex actions?
They can also be carried out on purpose (voluntarily), so in those cases they are not reflex actions.
Some actions, such as the pupil reflex, are always automatic (involuntary).
The sequence of components in a reflex action is: Stimulus → Receptor → → Effector → Response
The sequence of components in a reflex action is: Stimulus → Receptor → Coordinator → Effector → Response
What is the role of a receptor in a reflex action?
To detect a stimulus.
Some receptor cells produce electrical activity in nerve cells in response to stimuli, while others secrete substances in response to stimuli.
What is the coordinator in most reflex actions?
The spinal cord.
Some reflexes may instead involve unconscious parts of the brain, e.g. the medulla in the brainstem.
Why is the response in a reflex action always the same for a given stimulus?
The impulse follows a fixed nervous pathway from receptor to a specific effector, so the same effector always produces the same appropriate response.
Why do doctors use the knee-jerk reflex?
To assess whether a patient's nervous system is working properly.
State the components (stimulus, receptor, coordinator, effector, response) of the knee-jerk reflex.
Stimulus – stretching of the quadriceps muscle caused by pressure on the ligament (created by the hammer)
Receptor – stretch receptors in the quadriceps muscle
Coordinator – the spinal cord
Effector – the quadriceps muscle
Response – contraction of the quadriceps muscle, causing the leg to straighten
Describe the nervous pathway of the knee-jerk reflex.
The stretch receptors send impulses down a sensory neurone, which connects directly, via a single synapse, with a motor neurone in the spinal cord.
There is no relay neurone in this pathway.
The motor neurone carries the impulses to the effector (the quadriceps muscle), which contracts.
Explain why the knee-jerk reflex is so fast and automatic.
Nerve impulses are delayed by synapses. In this reflex the signal crosses only a single synapse, allowing a very rapid response.
Information still travels to the brain, but by the time the brain processes it the response has already occurred, so the brain has no chance to make a decision.
What can trigger the blinking reflex?
Something travelling towards the eye at high speed
Something contacting the cornea
Drying of the cornea
Describe the nervous pathway of the blinking reflex.
Irritation or drying of the cornea sends impulses down the trigeminal sensory nerve to the medulla of the brain, where it connects with other neurones to transmit the signal to the effector muscles.
Relay neurones are involved in transmitting the impulses to the effectors.
The pathway goes via the brain but not via any decision-making areas, and the number of synapses is still minimal.
Name the effector muscles of the blinking reflex and their roles.
Superior levator palpebrae muscle – lowers the upper eyelid
Orbicularis oculi muscle – pulls the eyelids inwards and helps to close them
How do doctors carry out the knee-jerk reflex test?
A specialised hammer is used to hit the tendon between the knee cap and the tibia, and the leg involuntarily straightens in a small kicking motion.
True or False: Blinking is always a reflex action.
False — blinking can also be done on purpose (voluntarily), so it is not always a reflex action.
True or False: The knee-jerk reflex pathway contains a relay neurone.
False — the knee-jerk reflex has no relay neurone; the sensory neurone connects directly to the motor neurone via a single synapse.
Withdrawal reflex
A reflex action in which a body part is pulled away from a source of pain.
Why must organisms be able to respond to changes in their environment?
To survive. Responding to change allows organisms to:
Find favourable conditions for living
Find food
Avoid being eaten
If these requirements are not met, a species will die out or go extinct.
What is the sequence of stages involved in coordinating a response to a stimulus?
Stimulus – a detectable change in the environment
Receptor – detects the stimulus
Coordinator – receives and processes the impulse/hormone
Effector – brings about the response
Response – the appropriate action produced
What are the two ways in which different receptor cells respond to a stimulus?
Some receptor cells produce electrical activity in nerve cells
Other receptor cells secrete messenger chemicals, such as hormones
Effector
A structure (such as a muscle or gland) that brings about the appropriate response to a stimulus, following signals received from a coordinator.
Under what conditions is the 'fight-or-flight' response produced?
It is produced in situations of a high level of stress, fear or aggression induced by environmental stimuli.
How do the nervous system and endocrine system work together in the 'fight-or-flight' response?
They work in a complementary manner to coordinate this fast response:
The initial part of the response is controlled by the nervous system (the sympathetic nervous system coordinates many responses to danger)
The response is continued by the endocrine system, via the hormones adrenaline and cortisol (secreted from the adrenal glands)
Describe the mechanism by which environmental danger leads to the secretion of adrenaline.
Sensory neurones detect the stimulus and send impulses to the brain
The amygdala sends impulses to other parts of the brain, including the hypothalamus
The hypothalamus sends impulses via sympathetic nerves to the adrenal glands
This causes the adrenal medulla to secrete adrenaline, which increases sensory awareness and alertness
Describe the pathway by which the 'fight-or-flight' response leads to the secretion of cortisol.
The hypothalamus releases a peptide hormone
This stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
ACTH is transported to the adrenal glands via the bloodstream
This causes the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol
What are the effects of cortisol in the 'fight-or-flight' response?
Increases blood pressure
Increases blood glucose, ensuring tissues have sufficient glucose and oxygen for a rapid response
Suppresses the immune system
State four effects of adrenaline on the body.
Any of the following:
Dilates the pupils (contraction of iris muscles)
Dilates the bronchioles (relaxing smooth muscle) to increase airflow to the alveoli
Causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the gut and skin, raising blood pressure
Causes vasodilation of blood vessels to the brain and muscles
Increases heart rate and stroke volume
Stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in liver cells, raising blood glucose concentration
Which regions of the adrenal glands secrete adrenaline and cortisol respectively?
Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal medulla
Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex
(Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are regions of the adrenal glands.)
Describe the second messenger model by which adrenaline increases blood glucose concentration in liver cells.
Adrenaline binds to a specific receptor on the liver cell membrane
This activates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase (it changes shape)
Active adenylyl cyclase catalyses the conversion of ATP to the second messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP)
cAMP activates protein kinase A enzymes
Protein kinase A activates phosphorylase kinase (by adding phosphate groups)
Phosphorylase kinase activates glycogen phosphorylase, which catalyses the breakdown of glycogen to glucose (glycogenolysis)
What is the advantage of the enzyme cascade triggered by adrenaline in the second messenger model?
It amplifies the original signal from adrenaline, so that each adrenaline molecule leads to the release of a large amount of extra glucose by the liver, quickly raising blood glucose concentration.
The breakdown of glycogen to glucose, stimulated by adrenaline in liver cells, is known as .
The breakdown of glycogen to glucose, stimulated by adrenaline in liver cells, is known as glycogenolysis.
What is the purpose of the 'fight-or-flight' response?
The response is rapid and can be crucial for preserving life.
True or False: In the 'fight-or-flight' response, the initial part is controlled by the nervous system and the response is continued by the endocrine system.
True
True or False: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
False — adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal medulla; the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol.
Myogenic
Describes muscle that initiates its own contraction, without requiring any external (nervous) stimulus. Cardiac muscle is myogenic, allowing the heart to beat at its own regular intervals.
Which two body systems regulate the rate at which the heart beats?
The nervous system (autonomic nervous system)
The endocrine system (hormones)
Medulla (cardioregulatory centre)
The region at the base of the brain, near the top of the spinal cord, that controls heart rate. It contains the acceleratory centre and the inhibitory centre, both connected to the sinoatrial node (SAN) by nerves of the autonomic nervous system.
What are the two distinct parts of the medulla that control heart rate, and what does each do?
The acceleratory centre, which causes the heart to speed up
The inhibitory centre, which causes the heart to slow down
Describe how the acceleratory centre increases heart rate.
Impulses are sent along sympathetic neurones to the SAN.
Noradrenaline is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
This increases the frequency of the electrical waves the SAN produces, raising the heart rate.
Describe how the inhibitory centre decreases heart rate.
Impulses are sent along parasympathetic neurones to the SAN.
Acetylcholine is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
This reduces the frequency of the electrical waves the SAN produces, lowering the heart rate towards the resting rate.
The acceleratory centre sends impulses along sympathetic neurones, where the neurotransmitter is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
The acceleratory centre sends impulses along sympathetic neurones, where the neurotransmitter noradrenaline is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
The inhibitory centre sends impulses along parasympathetic neurones, where the neurotransmitter is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
The inhibitory centre sends impulses along parasympathetic neurones, where the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is secreted at the synapse with the SAN.
During exercise, which internal changes act as stimuli to alter heart rate?
Blood carbon dioxide concentration increases
An initial fall in blood pressure, caused by dilation of the muscle arterioles
Which receptors detect the internal stimuli that affect heart rate?
Chemoreceptors, which detect blood carbon dioxide concentration
Pressure receptors, which detect blood pressure
How does the frequency of impulses from chemoreceptors and pressure receptors determine the change in heart rate?
Higher frequency impulses activate the acceleratory centre to speed up the heart rate
Lower frequency impulses activate the inhibitory centre to slow down the heart rate
Which three hormones increase heart rate, and which glands secrete them?
Adrenaline and noradrenaline — secreted by the adrenal glands
Thyroxine — secreted by the thyroid gland
Why is the increase in heart rate caused by adrenaline beneficial during a 'fight-or-flight' response?
It allows a rapid increase in blood supply to respiring muscles, delivering more oxygen and glucose for respiration.
This enables high-intensity activities, such as running from a predator, to happen as an immediate response.
Where are the receptors that detect the internal stimuli affecting heart rate located?
In the aorta, close to the heart
In the carotid arteries, which supply the head with oxygenated blood
True or False: Cardiac muscle is myogenic, meaning it can initiate its own contraction without a nervous stimulus.
True
True or False: The acceleratory centre sends impulses to the SAN along parasympathetic neurones.
False — the acceleratory centre uses sympathetic neurones; parasympathetic neurones carry impulses from the inhibitory centre.
Name several factors that can influence an organism's heart rate.
Any of the following:
Drugs
Caffeine
Alcohol
Sex
Weight
Height
Temperature
Diet
Dehydration
When designing an experiment to investigate the effect of a single factor on heart rate, what must be done with the other variables?
The other variables must be controlled (kept constant) as far as possible, so that any change in heart rate can be attributed to the single factor being investigated.
Why must serious care be taken when investigating factors affecting heart rate in humans?
To ensure that no test subjects are harmed. The experiment must be designed so that the safety of the subjects is never at risk (e.g. subjects should not be pushed to exercise so intensely that it could cause a heart attack).
Outline a method to investigate the effect of caffeine on the resting heart rate of humans.
Use a heart rate monitor to record each individual's resting heart rate (to give a baseline mean and range)
Give each individual a measured volume (e.g. 200 ml) of caffeine solution of known concentration to drink
Wait 15 minutes, then record each individual's resting heart rate again
Repeat the measurements every 15 minutes for 2 hours
Present the results in a table or graph
In a caffeine and heart rate experiment, why are measurements repeated every 15 minutes for 2 hours?
To show the duration for which caffeine has an effect on the heart rate.
In a caffeine and heart rate experiment, why should individuals remain sat down and not moving during measurements?
So that movement and activity level are controlled. Otherwise these variables could alter the heart rate and confound the effect of the caffeine.
Why must care be taken when selecting the caffeine concentration used in a heart rate experiment?
Because too much caffeine can be dangerous to the subjects, while too little may show no measurable effect on heart rate.
Why is using the same group of people for the 'before' and 'after' caffeine measurements an advantage?
It is very difficult to ensure that individuals in a sample are sufficiently similar. Using the same group for both measurements means individual differences (sex, age, weight, height, etc.) are largely accounted for, reducing their impact as a variable.
If separate groups (one consuming caffeine, one not) were used in a heart rate experiment, what precaution would be needed and why?
Care would need to be taken to select individuals with a similar life history (e.g. same sex, age, weight and height). Otherwise differences between the groups, rather than the caffeine, could account for any difference in heart rate.
Besides the mean heart rate, what other measure can be calculated from the group's readings, and what does it show?
The range of resting heart rates for the group, which shows the spread/variation in heart rate across the individuals (before and after caffeine consumption).
When investigating the effect of one factor on heart rate, all other variables should be so that the results are valid.
When investigating the effect of one factor on heart rate, all other variables should be controlled so that the results are valid.
Ethical considerations (in human heart rate experiments)
The moral requirements that must be met when using human subjects, including obtaining informed consent and ensuring the experiment is designed so that no subject's safety or wellbeing is ever put at risk.
True or False: When investigating the effect of a single factor on heart rate, the other variables should be allowed to vary freely.
False — the other variables must be controlled so that the results are valid.
True or False: Using the same group of people for the before and after caffeine measurements helps account for individual differences.
True
Range (of heart rates)
The difference between the highest and lowest heart rate readings in a group, showing the spread of values.
Name the three types of muscle found in mammals.
Skeletal muscle (striated / voluntary)
Smooth muscle (involuntary)
Cardiac muscle
Muscle fibre
A highly specialised, cell-like unit that makes up skeletal (striated) muscle. It contains contractile proteins in its cytoplasm, is surrounded by a cell surface membrane, and contains many nuclei.
Why are skeletal muscle fibres not usually referred to as cells?
Because each muscle fibre contains many nuclei, rather than a single nucleus like a typical cell.
Sarcolemma
The cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre.
Sarcoplasm
The cytoplasm of a muscle fibre. It contains mitochondria and myofibrils.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
The muscle-fibre equivalent of the endoplasmic reticulum. Its membranes contain protein pumps that transport calcium ions into its lumen.
What are T-tubules?
T-tubules (transverse system tubules) are deep, tube-like projections that fold inwards from the outer surface of the sarcolemma.
What is the role of the mitochondria found in the sarcoplasm of a muscle fibre?
They carry out aerobic respiration to generate the ATP required for muscle contraction.
What are myofibrils made of?
Bundles of two types of protein filament that slide past each other during contraction:
Thick filaments made of myosin
Thin filaments made of actin
The membranes of the SR contain protein pumps that transport into the lumen of the SR.
The membranes of the SR contain protein pumps that transport calcium ions into the lumen of the SR.
Describe the structure of smooth (involuntary) muscle.
Contains both actin and myosin filaments, but has no banding or striation
Made of small, elongated, spindle-shaped cells/fibres
Each cell contains a single nucleus
Explain what is meant by cardiac muscle being 'myogenic'.
It can contract without external stimulation by nerves or hormones, allowing the heart to beat at its own regular intervals (which can still be regulated by the nervous and endocrine systems).
Give three key features of cardiac muscle.
It is myogenic (contracts without external stimulation)
It does not tire or fatigue, so it can contract continuously throughout life
Fibres form a network joined by intercalated discs, with many mitochondria to supply ATP
When using an optical microscope, why should you always start with the low power objective lens?
It is easier to find the specimen in the field of view
It helps prevent damage to the lens or coverslip if the stage has been raised too high
How is an eyepiece graticule calibrated so it can be used to measure cells?
A graticule has no fixed units, so it is calibrated against a stage micrometer (a scale engraved on a microscope slide).
By lining up the two scales, you work out how many micrometres each graticule unit represents for the objective lens in use.
Where do T-tubules run within a muscle fibre?
They run close to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
True or False: cardiac muscle is myogenic.
True — it contracts without external stimulation by nerves or hormones.
True or False: smooth muscle has visible banding (striations).
False — smooth muscle contains actin and myosin but has no banding or striation.
Neuromuscular junction
The point where a motor neurone meets a muscle cell. It works in a very similar way to a synapse, transmitting an impulse to trigger contraction of striated muscle.
Sarcolemma
The surface (cell surface) membrane of a muscle fibre cell.
Acetylcholinesterase
An enzyme present in the synaptic cleft that breaks down acetylcholine (ACh), preventing the muscle from being continually stimulated by a single impulse.
Where is a neuromuscular junction located?
Between a motor neurone and a muscle cell.
What happens when an action potential arrives at the presynaptic membrane of a motor neurone at the neuromuscular junction?
The action potential causes calcium ions to diffuse into the neurone.\n\nThis stimulates vesicles containing acetylcholine (ACh) to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release ACh.
What happens to the acetylcholine (ACh) after it is released from the presynaptic membrane?
ACh diffuses across the neuromuscular junction and binds to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma (the surface membrane of the muscle fibre).
What is the effect of ACh binding to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma?
Ion channels in the sarcolemma open, allowing sodium ions to diffuse in\n- This depolarises the sarcolemma, generating an action potential
How does the action potential travel towards the centre of the muscle fibre?
It passes down the T-tubules, which carry the action potential towards the centre of the muscle fibre.
How do action potentials passing down the T-tubules cause calcium ions to be released?
They cause voltage-gated calcium ion channels in the membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) to open.\n\nCalcium ions then diffuse out of the SR and into the sarcoplasm surrounding the myofibrils.
What do the released calcium ions do to allow muscle contraction to begin?
Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing it to change shape\n- This moves troponin and tropomyosin on the thin (actin) filaments\n- The myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, so contraction (the sliding filament model) can begin
Calcium ions bind to molecules, stimulating them to change shape and move tropomyosin to expose the myosin-binding sites.
Calcium ions bind to troponin molecules, stimulating them to change shape and move tropomyosin to expose the myosin-binding sites.
The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is .
The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is acetylcholine (ACh).
How is muscle contraction stopped at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft breaks down acetylcholine, preventing continual stimulation\n- Calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum once the sarcolemma, T-tubules and SR are no longer polarised\n- The removal of calcium ions terminates muscle contraction
True or False: Neuromuscular junctions work in a very similar way to synapses.
True
True or False: When ACh binds to receptors on the sarcolemma, potassium ions diffuse into the muscle fibre.
False — sodium ions diffuse in, which depolarises the sarcolemma.
What are the thick filaments of a myofibril made of?
Thick filaments are made of myosin molecules.
What are the thin filaments of a myofibril made of?
Thin filaments are made of actin molecules (globular proteins).
Sarcomere
The functional contractile unit of a myofibril; it shortens during muscle contraction as the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other.
Tropomyosin
A fibrous protein twisted around the two actin chains of a thin filament that, in a resting muscle, helps block the myosin-binding sites on actin.
Troponin
A protein attached to the actin chains at regular intervals. When calcium ions bind to it, it changes shape, moving troponin and tropomyosin to expose the myosin-binding sites on actin.
In terms of filaments and sarcomeres, what happens during muscle contraction?
Sarcomeres within the myofibrils shorten as the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other.
The filaments themselves do not shorten; they move relative to one another towards the centre of the sarcomere. This is the sliding filament model of muscle contraction.
After an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, how are the myosin-binding sites on actin exposed?
Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm by diffusion
Calcium ions bind to troponin, stimulating it to change shape
Troponin and tropomyosin change position on the actin filaments
The myosin-binding sites on actin are now exposed
Calcium ions are released from the into the sarcoplasm by diffusion.
Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm by diffusion.
Describe how cross-bridges form between the myosin heads and actin.
The globular myosin heads bind to the exposed binding sites on actin, forming cross-bridges between the two filaments.
Explain the role of ATP in the cross-bridge cycle of muscle contraction.
When the myosin head bends (power stroke), it releases a molecule of ADP
ATP binds to the myosin head, allowing it to detach from actin
The myosin head acts as an ATPase, hydrolysing ATP into ADP and Pi; the energy released returns the myosin head to its original position
The myosin head can then bind to a new binding site further along the actin, repeating the cycle
How is calcium returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Calcium ions are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport.
Phosphocreatine
A molecule stored by muscles that allows the rapid production of ATP. A phosphate ion is transferred from phosphocreatine to ADP:
ADP + phosphocreatine → ATP + creatine
It lets muscles keep contracting for a short time until the mitochondria can supply enough ATP.
Why do muscles rely on phosphocreatine at the start of intense exercise?
Resting muscles store only a small amount of ATP, enough for roughly 3-4 seconds of intense exercise.
Aerobic respiration produces ATP but is slow, and anaerobic respiration takes around 10 seconds before it begins producing ATP.
Phosphocreatine provides rapid ATP to keep the muscle contracting until respiration can meet demand (e.g. in a 100 m sprinter).
Describe the structure of a thick (myosin) filament.
Myosin is a fibrous protein with a globular head.
The fibrous part anchors the molecule into the thick filament, with many myosin molecules lying side by side and their globular heads all pointing away from the M line.
Describe the structure of a thin (actin) filament.
Many actin molecules link to form a chain, and two actin chains twist together to form one thin filament.
Tropomyosin (a fibrous protein) is twisted around the two actin chains
Troponin is attached to the actin chains at regular intervals
Describe the power stroke and how it pulls the actin filaments.
The myosin heads bend, pulling the actin filaments towards the centre of the sarcomere (the power stroke).
This causes the muscle to contract a very small distance.
What conditions allow the cross-bridge cycle to keep repeating?
The cross-bridge cycle repeats and the muscle contracts further as long as:
troponin and tropomyosin are not blocking the myosin-binding sites, and
the muscle has a supply of ATP
True or False: The actin and myosin filaments themselves shorten during muscle contraction.
False — the filaments do not shorten; they slide past each other so the sarcomere shortens.
True or False: Calcium ions are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport.
True
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