7.2 Assessing the Internal Position of a Business (AQA A Level Business): Flashcards

Exam code: 7132

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  • Define income statement.

    The income statement tracks a business's revenue, expenses and profit or loss over a set period, usually a year.

  • Name the three parts of the income statement.

    The trading account, the profit and loss account and the appropriation account.

  • What does the trading account calculate?

    Gross profit = sales revenue − cost of sales.

  • What does the profit and loss account calculate?

    Operating profit = gross profit − expenses.

  • A business has gross profit £105.73m and expenses £39.87m. Calculate operating profit.

    £105.73m − £39.87m = £65.86m.

  • What does the appropriations account show?

    How profits are distributed — split between dividends and retained profit.

  • Operating profit £65.86m, interest £2.01m, tax £13.10m. Calculate profit after tax.

    £65.86m − £2.01m = £63.85m; £63.85m − £13.10m = £50.75m.

  • Why is the government interested in the income statement?

    To determine how much tax is payable and check the accounts meet the Companies Act 2006.

  • Define profit quality.

    Profit quality measures how reliable and sustainable a company's reported profit really is.

  • Give one feature of high-quality profit.

    Recurrent, cash-backed revenue (e.g. Netflix subscriptions), core operation strength or healthy margins.

  • Give one feature of poor-quality profit.

    One-off gains, accounting adjustments, or non-cash/volatile items such as exchange-rate gains.

  • What is the difference between extraordinary and exceptional items?

    Extraordinary items are one-off and outside normal trading (e.g. relocating HQ); exceptional items are unusual one-offs but part of normal trading (e.g. a very large order).

  • The trading account deducts cost of sales from sales revenue to give    profit.

    The trading account deducts cost of sales from sales revenue to give gross profit.

  • True or False?

    Profit from selling surplus land is an example of high-quality profit.

    False.

    A one-off gain is poor-quality profit, because it cannot be repeated in future years.

  • True or False?

    The income statement shows a business's financial position at a single point in time.

    False.

    That is the balance sheet; the income statement covers a period of time (usually a year).

  • Define the balance sheet.

    The balance sheet is a snapshot of a business's financial position at a point in time, showing what it owns, owes and how it is funded.

  • Define non-current assets.

    Non-current assets are items owned by a business for the long term, such as machinery and buildings.

  • Define current assets.

    Current assets can be converted to cash quickly (within 12 months) — inventory, trade receivables and cash.

  • What is the formula for total assets?

    Total assets = non-current assets + current assets.

  • Define current liabilities.

    Current liabilities are money owed due within 12 months — e.g. trade payables and overdrafts.

  • Define non-current liabilities.

    Non-current liabilities are money owed not due for at least 12 months — e.g. a loan or mortgage.

  • How is net current assets (working capital) calculated?

    Current assets − current liabilities.

  • What is the formula for net assets?

    (Non-current assets + current assets) − (current liabilities + non-current liabilities).

  • What does positive working capital suggest?

    The business can cover its short-term bills from its short-term assets.

  • What does a high proportion of non-current assets indicate?

    A capital-intensive business, common in primary and secondary sector firms.

  • What do strong reserves allow a business to do?

    Pay dividends, fund projects without borrowing, and absorb unexpected losses.

  • Define window dressing.

    Window dressing is using short-term techniques to make financial statements look stronger than they really are.

  • Give one window dressing technique.

    Timing of transactions, reclassifying items, off-balance-sheet financing, or one-off gains/asset revaluations.

  • Why are suppliers interested in the balance sheet?

    They focus on liquidity to judge whether the business can pay invoices on time.

  • The balance sheet provides a    of a business's financial position at a given point in time.

    The balance sheet provides a snapshot of a business's financial position at a given point in time.

  • True or False?

    Non-current liabilities are debts that must be repaid within 12 months.

    False.

    Those are current liabilities; non-current liabilities are due after at least 12 months.

  • Define ratio analysis.

    Ratio analysis involves extracting information from financial accounts to assess business performance.

  • Define return on capital employed (RoCE).

    RoCE measures how effectively a business uses the capital invested in it to generate profit.

  • State the formula for RoCE.

    RoCE = (operating profit ÷ capital employed) × 100.

  • Operating profit £2.2m, capital employed £13.9m. Calculate RoCE.

    (2.2 ÷ 13.9) × 100 = 16%.

  • How is capital employed calculated from the balance sheet?

    Total assets − current liabilities.

  • How do you interpret RoCE?

    The higher the better — a RoCE of at least 20% usually signals a good financial position.

  • Define the current ratio.

    The current ratio is a liquidity measure showing how many £s of current assets cover each £1 of short-term debt.

  • State the formula for the current ratio.

    Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities (expressed as ?:1).

  • Current assets £15,545, current liabilities £5,060. Calculate the current ratio.

    £15,545 ÷ £5,060 = 3.07:1.

  • Define the gearing ratio.

    The gearing ratio shows the proportion of capital employed funded by non-current liabilities (long-term borrowing), as a %.

  • State the formula for the gearing ratio.

    Gearing = (non-current liabilities ÷ capital employed) × 100.

  • Non-current liabilities £9.6m, capital employed £43.3m. Calculate gearing.

    (9.6 ÷ 43.3) × 100 = 22%.

  • What counts as a highly-geared business?

    One where more than 50% of capital employed is made up of long-term loans.

  • Give one risk of high gearing.

    High interest payments reduce dividends and retained profit, and the business is seen as risky for further investment or loans.

  • How can a business reduce its gearing?

    Issue more shares, retain more profit, or repay loans.

  • RoCE is also known as the    ratio.

    RoCE is also known as the primary ratio.

  • True or False?

    A higher RoCE indicates a business is using its capital more efficiently.

    True.

    A higher RoCE shows the business is profitable and using its capital efficiently.

  • True or False?

    A low-geared business relies heavily on borrowed money.

    False.

    A highly-geared business does; low-geared means less than 50% of capital employed is long-term loans.

  • What do efficiency ratios show?

    How well a business manages its resources and operations — helping to improve performance and cash flow.

  • Name the three efficiency ratios.

    Payables days, receivables days and inventory turnover.

  • Define payables days.

    Payables days measures the average number of days a business takes to pay invoices owed to suppliers.

  • State the formula for payables days.

    Payables days = (payables × 365) ÷ cost of sales.

  • Payables £28,500, cost of sales £112,400. Calculate payables days.

    (28,500 × 365) ÷ 112,400 = 92.55 days.

  • Do businesses aim for high or low payables days, and why?

    High/increasing — it shows extended credit from suppliers and improves cash flow (but paying late risks supplier relationships).

  • Define receivables days.

    Receivables days measures the average number of days a business takes to collect money from its debtors.

  • State the formula for receivables days.

    Receivables days = (receivables × 365) ÷ sales revenue.

  • Receivables £31,200, sales revenue £241,200. Calculate receivables days.

    (31,200 × 365) ÷ 241,200 = 47.21 days.

  • Do businesses aim for high or low receivables days, and why?

    Low/reducing — it shows efficient debt collection and improves cash flow.

  • State the formula for average inventory.

    Average inventory = (opening inventory + closing inventory) ÷ 2.

  • State the formula for inventory turnover (number of times).

    Inventory turnover = cost of sales ÷ average inventory.

  • Cost of sales £112,400, average inventory £36,800. Calculate inventory turnover (times).

    £112,400 ÷ £36,800 = 3.05 times.

  • State the formula for inventory turnover (number of days).

    Inventory turnover (days) = (average inventory × 365) ÷ cost of sales.

  • Why is there no ideal inventory turnover ratio?

    It varies by business — jewellers sell few high-price items (low turnover); supermarkets sell high volumes (high turnover).

  • Give one advantage and one disadvantage of ratio analysis.

    Advantage: simple and easy to compare; disadvantage: it ignores qualitative factors and uses historical data.

  • If receivables days are greater than payables days, the business waits longer to collect cash than to pay its   .

    If receivables days are greater than payables days, the business waits longer to collect cash than to pay its suppliers.

  • True or False?

    A high payables days ratio always benefits a business.

    False.

    Taking longer than agreed to pay can damage supplier relationships and the business's creditworthiness.

  • What can operations data be used for?

    To assess how well a business is performing — analysed over time and compared with similar firms.

  • How can higher productivity give a competitive advantage?

    It lowers unit costs (fixed costs spread over more units), letting the business lower prices to compete.

  • What does rising labour productivity suggest?

    That training, motivation techniques or new technology is working — encouraging further investment.

  • Define the defect rate.

    The defect rate is the proportion of output judged to be substandard in a period, shown as a %.

  • State the formula for the defect rate.

    Defect rate = (number of defective items ÷ total output) × 100.

  • 213 of 14,220 cables were defective. Calculate the defect rate.

    (213 ÷ 14,220) × 100 = 1.50%.

  • State the formula for the returns rate.

    Returns rate = (number of returned items ÷ total sales) × 100.

  • State the formula for the wastage rate.

    Wastage rate = (cost of wasted materials ÷ total cost of sales) × 100.

  • Give two reasons to reduce the defect or returns rate.

    To avoid lost revenue and protect reputation (also to avoid legal issues and refund/processing costs).

  • Define capacity utilisation.

    Capacity utilisation measures how effectively a business uses its assets — comparing current output to maximum possible output.

  • Why is high capacity utilisation important?

    It spreads fixed costs over more units, lowering the unit cost and raising profit margins.

  • What is a risk of pushing capacity utilisation too high?

    Equipment breakdowns and defects can increase if machinery is pushed too hard.

  • Give one limitation of using operations data.

    Low capacity utilisation may reflect weak demand, not poor operations; it can also overlook staff burnout and depends on data accuracy.

  • How is customer loyalty commonly measured?

    By the volume of repeat sales, e.g. through loyalty schemes like Tesco's Clubcard.

  • The defect rate is the proportion of output judged to be    in a given period.

    The defect rate is the proportion of output judged to be substandard in a given period.

  • True or False?

    A low capacity utilisation figure always means operations are performing poorly.

    False.

    It may be due to weak customer demand rather than poor operations, risking misplaced blame.

  • Name three measures of HR performance.

    Labour turnover, absenteeism and labour cost per unit (also labour retention, average wage and accident rate).

  • State the formula for labour turnover.

    (Number of staff leaving ÷ total number of staff) × 100.

  • State the formula for labour retention.

    (Number of staff remaining ÷ total number of staff) × 100.

  • State the formula for the absenteeism rate.

    (Number of staff absent ÷ total number of employees) × 100.

  • State the formula for labour cost per unit.

    Total labour costs ÷ total output.

  • State the formula for the average wage.

    Total labour costs ÷ total number of employees.

  • State the formula for the accident rate.

    (Number of workplace accidents ÷ total output) × 100.

  • Define absenteeism.

    Absenteeism is the proportion of staff absent from work during a specific period of time.

  • What does high retention with low turnover and absenteeism suggest?

    A committed, experienced team — often linked to high productivity and morale.

  • Give one benefit of using HR data.

    It reveals workforce stability, helps manage costs, and highlights health and safety performance.

  • Give one limitation of using HR data.

    It masks root causes (why people leave), can ignore output quality, and suffers time lags.

  • Why is HR data described as reactive rather than preventive?

    By the time absenteeism or accident figures rise, morale or safety may already be poor.

  • Labour    measures the proportion of employees remaining with a business during a period.

    Labour retention measures the proportion of employees remaining with a business during a period.

  • True or False?

    A low labour cost per unit is always a sign of good performance.

    False.

    It could mean underinvestment in skilled staff, risking defects or poor service quality.

  • True or False?

    HR data can be hard to interpret because it measures the performance of people.

    True.

    People's opinions, attitudes and motivations are difficult to capture in quantitative terms.

  • What can marketing data be used to assess?

    The strengths and weaknesses of a business — analysed over time and compared with similar firms.

  • Name three sources of marketing data.

    Sales/revenue data, web/digital analytics and market research surveys (also customer purchase data, competitor benchmarking and social-media listening).

  • What does web and digital marketing analytics show?

    Website traffic, click rates, bounce rates, conversion rates and email metrics.

  • What does a high bounce rate on a mobile site indicate?

    Poor usability — visitors leaving before browsing, possibly due to slow load times or poor design.

  • Define competitor benchmarking.

    Competitor benchmarking compares a business against competitors' pricing, promotions, product ranges and positioning.

  • What is social-media listening (sentiment analysis)?

    Tracking public opinion and emerging trends through online mentions, particularly on social media.

  • Give one advantage of using marketing data.

    It provides data-driven insights, identifies strengths/weaknesses, and enables benchmarking and trend-spotting.

  • Give one limitation of using marketing data.

    Data quality issues, it lacks context (doesn't explain motivations), and it is resource intensive/expensive.

  • Why might marketing data 'lack context'?

    Data alone don't explain customer motivations, brand perception or the wider market forces behind the numbers.

  • Marketing data can be compared over time or against competitors to spot emerging opportunities or   .

    Marketing data can be compared over time or against competitors to spot emerging opportunities or threats.

  • True or False?

    Marketing data on its own fully explains why customers behave as they do.

    False.

    It lacks context — it does not explain customer motivations or brand perception.

  • True or False?

    Specialist marketing reports can be expensive and quickly out of date.

    True.

    Marketing data is resource intensive and insights can be outdated by the time they're ready, especially in fast-moving markets.

  • Define core competencies.

    Core competencies are the capabilities critical for a business to achieve competitive advantage by delivering real value to customers.

  • What two things make up core competencies?

    Collective learning (knowledge, patents, know-how) and technical skills (production skills, unique processes and technology).

  • Name the three features a strength must have to be a core competency.

    It must provide broad market access, create customer value and be difficult to imitate.

  • What does 'provide broad market access' mean?

    The competency applies across a range of products, services or markets, not just one niche.

  • What does 'create customer value' mean?

    It directly improves something customers care about — performance, reliability, prestige or cost savings.

  • Why must a core competency be difficult to imitate?

    If rivals can copy it quickly or cheaply, the business loses its advantage.

  • Give one benefit of developing core competencies.

    Sustainable differentiation (also cost efficiency/scale, easier market expansion and continuous innovation).

  • Give one problem with developing core competencies.

    Loss of skills through outsourcing (also becoming outdated, high initial cost and inflexibility).

  • How can outsourcing threaten core competencies?

    Paying others for key tasks can mean losing in-house know-how — e.g. Boeing struggled with 787 Dreamliner quality issues.

  • To be a core competency, a strength must be difficult for rivals to   .

    To be a core competency, a strength must be difficult for rivals to imitate.

  • True or False?

    Any strength a business has counts as a core competency.

    False.

    It must provide broad market access, create customer value and be difficult to imitate.

  • What is short-termism?

    Focusing on a few key figures each quarter or year to keep investors happy, often at the expense of long-term goals.

  • Name three short-term performance measures.

    Earnings per share, quarterly revenue growth and dividend payout.

  • What does earnings per share show?

    How much profit each share earns in a period — a quick gauge of profitability.

  • What is quarterly revenue growth?

    The % increase or decrease in sales compared with the same quarter last year.

  • What is dividend payout?

    The share of profits returned to shareholders as dividends.

  • Name three long-term performance measures.

    Sustainability, customer satisfaction and R&D investment (also reputation, employee engagement and profit quality).

  • What does sustainability measure?

    A company's environmental and social performance — emissions, renewable energy use and responsible sourcing.

  • Why does employee engagement matter long-term?

    Engaged workforces are more productive and innovative, and more likely to stay with the business.

  • What does R&D investment signal?

    How much a business is preparing new products, services or processes for the future.

  • Why can over-emphasis on short-term measures be harmful?

    It can divert resources away from long-term innovation, sustainability or growing market share.

  • Earnings per    shows how much profit each share earns in a given period.

    Earnings per share shows how much profit each share earns in a given period.

  • True or False?

    Dividend payout is a long-term performance measure.

    False.

    Dividend payout is a short-term performance measure.

  • True or False?

    A business focused on R&D investment and sustainability is using long-term performance measures.

    True.

    R&D investment and sustainability are both long-term performance measures.

  • Define Elkington's Triple Bottom Line.

    A model measuring business performance across three areas — people, profit and planet.

  • What three areas does the Triple Bottom Line measure?

    People (social), profit (financial) and planet (environmental).

  • What did Elkington argue about measuring all three areas?

    Only measuring people, profit and planet considers the full costs of a business's activities, improving sustainability.

  • Give one criticism of the Triple Bottom Line.

    It is hard to measure fairly (also conflicting goals, greenwashing risk, complexity/cost, and it is not fully integrated).

  • What is greenwashing (as a Triple Bottom Line risk)?

    Highlighting small eco-projects (e.g. tree-planting) while continuing harmful practices such as high emissions.

  • What is the balanced scorecard?

    A tool measuring performance across four perspectives so profit does not dominate decision-making.

  • Name the four perspectives of the balanced scorecard.

    Financial, customer, internal processes and learning and growth.

  • What does the performance prism consider?

    Five elements: stakeholder satisfaction, strategies, processes, capabilities and stakeholder contributions.

  • What do the GRI Standards provide?

    Guidelines for reporting economic, environmental and social impacts — creating transparent, comparable sustainability reports.

  • Why might the Triple Bottom Line lead to conflicting goals?

    Improving social/environmental outcomes (e.g. paying farmers more) can cut into profits, with no guidance on which wins.

  • Elkington's Triple Bottom Line measures people, planet and   .

    Elkington's Triple Bottom Line measures people, planet and profit.

  • True or False?

    The balanced scorecard measures performance only in financial terms.

    False.

    It uses four perspectives — financial, customer, internal processes, and learning and growth — so profit doesn't dominate.

  • True or False?

    The Triple Bottom Line is sometimes criticised for being hard to measure fairly.

    True.

    There is no standard way to count 'people' or 'planet' metrics, making comparisons unfair.

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