Reproduction (Edexcel IGCSE Science (Double Award): Biology): Flashcards

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  • Define sexual reproduction.

    The production of offspring by the fusion of male and female gametes.

    Offspring inherit genetic material from both parents, so they are genetically different from either one.

  • Define asexual reproduction.

    The production of offspring from a single parent, with no gametes and no fertilisation.

    The offspring are genetically identical to the parent and to each other — they are clones.

  • How many parents does each type of reproduction need?

    • Sexualtwo parents

    • Asexualone parent

  • Which types of cell division does sexual reproduction use?

    Meiosis to produce the gametes, then mitosis after fertilisation.

  • Which type of cell division does asexual reproduction use?

    Mitosis only.

  • Compare the genetic similarity of offspring from each type.

    • Asexualgenetically identical to each other and to the parent

    • Sexualgenetically unique, and different from both parents

  • Why does sexual reproduction introduce variation?

    Because offspring inherit genetic material from both parents, so they are genetically different from their parents and from each other.

  • Give one advantage of asexual reproduction.

    It happens much more quickly and efficiently than sexual reproduction, which can give a population a survival advantage.

  • Give one disadvantage of asexual reproduction.

    The lack of genetic variation makes the population more vulnerable to disease or environmental change.

  • What happens to a zygote after fertilisation?

    It divides by mitosis and develops into an embryo.

  • Offspring produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical, so they are called ________.

    Offspring produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical, so they are called clones.

  • Gametes are produced by ________, which halves the chromosome number.

    Gametes are produced by meiosis, which halves the chromosome number.

  • True or False?

    Asexual reproduction involves gametes.

    False.

    Asexual reproduction needs no gametes and no fertilisation — only one parent cell is required.

  • True or False?

    Many plants reproduce asexually.

    True.

    Asexual reproduction is common in plants.

  • Define gamete.

    A sex cell produced by meiosis, containing half the number of chromosomes of a normal body cell.

  • Name the male and female gametes in animals and in plants.

    • Animals — the sperm and the ovum

    • Plants — the pollen nucleus and the ovum

  • How many chromosomes does a human gamete contain?

    23 — half the number in a normal body cell.

  • How is a sperm cell adapted for its function?

    • A tail to propel it towards the egg

    • Mitochondria to provide the energy for that movement

  • How is an egg cell adapted for its function?

    It has energy stores in its cytoplasm to support early embryo development.

  • Define fertilisation.

    The fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete to produce a zygote.

  • What happens to the zygote after fertilisation?

    It divides by mitosis to develop into an embryo, which grows into the new offspring.

  • Where does fertilisation occur in humans, and when?

    In the oviduct, typically 1–2 days after ovulation, if a sperm meets an egg.

  • How many chromosomes does a human zygote contain?

    46 — 23 pairs. Half come from the father and half from the mother.

  • How does fertilisation happen in a plant?

    A pollen tube grows down from a pollen grain to deliver the male nucleus into the ovary, where the male and female gametes fuse to form the embryo.

  • The fusion of a male and female gamete produces a ________.

    The fusion of a male and female gamete produces a zygote.

  • In humans, fertilisation takes place in the ________.

    In humans, fertilisation takes place in the oviduct.

  • True or False?

    Gametes contain the same number of chromosomes as body cells.

    False.

    Gametes contain half the number — 23 in humans, compared with 46 in a normal body cell.

  • True or False?

    A zygote divides by meiosis to form an embryo.

    False.

    A zygote divides by mitosis. It is the gametes that are produced by meiosis.

  • Define pollination.

    The transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part of a flower.

  • Where are the male and female gametes of a plant found?

    • Male — in the pollen grains

    • Female — in the ovules

  • What is the function of the sepal?

    It protects the unopened flower.

  • What is the function of the anther and the filament?

    • Anther — produces and releases pollen

    • Filament — provides support to the anther

  • What is the function of the stigma and the style?

    • Stigma — the sticky top of the female part, which collects pollen grains

    • Style — a tube connecting the stigma to the ovary

  • What is the function of the ovary and the ovule?

    • Ovary — contains the ovules

    • Ovule — the structure inside the ovary containing the female gametes

  • Give four adaptations of an insect-pollinated flower.

    • Large, brightly coloured petals to attract insects

    • Scent and nectar to encourage insects in past the stamen

    • Anthers on stiff filaments inside the flower, so they brush against insects

    • Sticky stigmas inside the flower to catch pollen as insects brush past

  • Describe how an insect pollinates a flower.

    As the insect enters a flower for nectar, it brushes against the anthers, which deposit sticky pollen on its body.

    At the next flower it brushes against the stigma and deposits some of that pollen.

  • Give four adaptations of a wind-pollinated flower.

    • Small, dull petals, often green or brown — colour would waste energy

    • No scent or nectar, which would also waste energy

    • Anthers on long filaments outside the flower, to release pollen into the wind

    • Feathery stigmas outside the flower, to catch airborne pollen

  • Why do wind-pollinated flowers hang their anthers and stigmas outside?

    So that pollen can easily be blown away by the wind, and easily be caught by the stigmas of other flowers.

  • Why do wind-pollinated flowers not produce nectar?

    Because they do not need to attract insects, so producing nectar would be a waste of energy.

  • Wind-pollinated flowers have ________ stigmas that hang outside the flower to catch airborne pollen.

    Wind-pollinated flowers have feathery stigmas that hang outside the flower to catch airborne pollen.

  • The ________ produces and releases pollen grains.

    The anther produces and releases pollen grains.

  • True or False?

    Insect-pollinated flowers have sticky pollen.

    True.

    Sticky pollen clings to the insect's body, so it is carried to the next flower.

  • True or False?

    Wind-pollinated flowers have large, brightly coloured petals.

    False.

    Their petals are small and dull, often green or brown — bright petals would waste energy since no insects need attracting.

  • What forms after successful pollination?

    A pollen tube, which grows down the style towards the ovary to deliver the male nucleus to the ovum.

  • What happens during fertilisation in a plant?

    The pollen nucleus and the ovum nucleus fuse together to form a zygote.

  • What is the difference between pollination and fertilisation?

    • Pollination — pollen landing on the stigma of a flower

    • Fertilisation — the fusion of the male and female nuclei

  • What does the ovule develop into after fertilisation?

    A seed.

  • What do the parts of the flower around the ovule develop into?

    A fruit, which contains the seeds.

  • What is the function of a fruit?

    It provides a mechanism for seed dispersal.

  • Give two ways a fruit can help disperse seeds.

    • Some fruits are eaten by animals, which disperse the seeds in their droppings

    • Some fruits have sticky hooks that catch in the fur of passing animals

  • Which structure does the pollen tube grow down?

    The style, on its way from the stigma to the ovary.

  • After pollination, a ________ grows down the style to deliver the male nucleus to the ovum.

    After pollination, a pollen tube grows down the style to deliver the male nucleus to the ovum.

  • After fertilisation the ovule develops into a ________.

    After fertilisation the ovule develops into a seed.

  • True or False?

    Pollination and fertilisation are the same process.

    False.

    Pollination is pollen landing on the stigma. Fertilisation is the later fusion of the male and female nuclei.

  • True or False?

    A fruit develops from the ovule.

    False.

    The ovule becomes the seed. The fruit develops from the parts of the flower surrounding the ovule.

  • Name the three factors needed for successful germination.

    • Water

    • Oxygen

    • Warmth

  • Why is water needed for germination?

    It swells the seed, breaks the seed coat, and activates the enzymes needed for growth.

  • Why is oxygen needed for germination?

    It is necessary for respiration, which provides the energy for growth.

  • Why is warmth needed for germination?

    It increases enzyme activity, improving germination up to a certain temperature.

  • Outline how the four germination test tubes are set up.

    Put 10 cress seeds on cotton wool in each of four labelled tubes.

    A — cotton wool kept dry.

    B — cotton wool moistened (the control).

    C — seeds covered with water plus a layer of oil on top.

    D — cotton wool moistened, tube placed in a fridge at 4 °C.

    Keep A, B and C at about 20 °C and compare after 3–5 days.

  • Which factor is being tested in each tube?

    • A — water is absent

    • B — the control, all factors present

    • C — oxygen is blocked

    • D — warmth is removed

  • Why is a layer of oil added to tube C?

    The oil and water layers block oxygen from reaching the seeds.

  • Which tube's seeds are expected to germinate, and why?

    Only tube B, the control.

    Germination requires all three factors, and B is the only tube where none has been removed.

  • Which variables should be controlled in this investigation?

    The temperature of tubes A, B and C, and the type of water used — sterile water, made by boiling then cooling it.

  • Why should the cress seeds all come from the same plant?

    So that the seeds are as similar as possible, and any difference in germination is due to the conditions, not the seeds.

  • Tube D is placed in a fridge at 4 °C to remove ________ from the seeds.

    Tube D is placed in a fridge at 4 °C to remove warmth from the seeds.

  • Water activates the ________ inside a seed that are needed for growth.

    Water activates the enzymes inside a seed that are needed for growth.

  • True or False?

    Seeds in the dry tube will still germinate slowly.

    False.

    Without water the seed coat cannot break and the enzymes are not activated, so no germination occurs.

  • True or False?

    Germination needs all three factors present at once.

    True.

    Removing any one of water, oxygen or warmth prevents germination — which is why only the control tube succeeds.

  • Name the four things found inside a seed.

    • An embryo shoot

    • An embryo root

    • Seed leaves, known as cotyledons

    • A food store, containing starch and other nutrients

  • Define cotyledon.

    A seed leaf — part of the seed that contains the plant's early food store.

  • How does a germinating seed release energy from its food store?

    Enzymes break the stored starch down into maltose and then glucose.

    The glucose is used in respiration to release energy for the growth of the shoot and root.

  • When can a seedling stop relying on its food store?

    Once larger leaves emerge, so that photosynthesis can begin and the plant can make its own food.

  • What is stored in a seed's food store?

    Starch and other nutrients.

  • Why must the starch in a seed be broken down before use?

    Because starch is a large, insoluble molecule. It must be broken into glucose before it can be used in respiration.

  • What happens to the embryo plant during germination?

    It begins to grow, using up the food reserves from the seed's food store.

  • Enzymes in a germinating seed break stored starch down into maltose and then ________.

    Enzymes in a germinating seed break stored starch down into maltose and then glucose.

  • The seed leaves inside a seed are called ________.

    The seed leaves inside a seed are called cotyledons.

  • True or False?

    A germinating seed can photosynthesise straight away.

    False.

    It relies on its food store until larger leaves emerge, at which point photosynthesis can begin.

  • True or False?

    Glucose from the food store is used in respiration.

    True.

    Respiration releases the energy needed for the shoot and root to grow.

  • What does the food store in a seed provide the seedling with?

    Nutrients and energy, until it can make its own food by photosynthesis.

  • Why are plants produced by asexual reproduction called clones?

    Only one parent is involved, so all the offspring are exact genetic copies of each other and of the parent plant.

  • Define runner.

    A horizontal stem that grows sideways out of a parent plant, carrying small plantlets at its end.

  • How do runners produce new plants?

    Once the plantlets at the end of a runner touch the soil, they grow roots, then grow on and become independent of the parent plant.

  • Are runners a natural or an artificial method?

    Natural asexual reproduction. Cuttings are the artificial method.

  • Describe how a gardener takes a cutting.

    Choose a healthy parent plant and cut off a section carrying a new bud.

    Place the cutting in water until new roots grow, or sometimes directly into soil.

    Then plant it and let it grow into an adult plant.

  • What is rooting powder and why is it used?

    A powder containing plant growth regulators (rooting hormones).

    Dipping the cutting's stem into it encourages new root growth.

  • Why do gardeners take cuttings from the best parent plants?

    Because the new plants are genetically identical to the parent, so they will share its desirable characteristics.

  • Give two advantages of cloning plants by cuttings.

    New plants can be produced cheaply and quickly.

  • Plants reproduce asexually in nature using ________, horizontal stems that grow sideways.

    Plants reproduce asexually in nature using runners, horizontal stems that grow sideways.

  • The stem of a cutting may be dipped in ________ to encourage new roots to grow.

    The stem of a cutting may be dipped in rooting powder to encourage new roots to grow.

  • True or False?

    A plant grown from a cutting is genetically identical to its parent.

    True.

    Taking cuttings is a form of asexual reproduction, so the new plant is a clone.

  • True or False?

    Plants can only reproduce asexually.

    False.

    Plants can reproduce both asexually and sexually.

  • What is the function of the testis?

    It produces sperm (the male gamete) and the hormone testosterone.

    It is contained in a bag of skin called the scrotum.

  • Why are the testes held outside the body in the scrotum?

    To keep the sperm at a temperature slightly lower than body temperature.

  • What is the function of the sperm duct?

    Sperm pass through it to be mixed with fluids produced by the glands, before entering the urethra for ejaculation.

  • What is the function of the urethra in males?

    A tube running down the centre of the penis that can carry urine or semen.

    A ring of muscle prevents the two from mixing.

  • What is the function of the penis?

    It passes urine out of the body from the bladder, and allows semen to pass into the vagina during sexual intercourse.

  • What is the function of the ovaries?

    They contain the ova (female gametes), which mature and develop when hormones are released.

  • What is the function of the oviduct?

    It connects the ovary to the uterus, and is where fertilisation occurs.

    It is lined with ciliated cells that push the released ovum along.

  • What is the function of the uterus?

    A muscular sac with a soft lining, where the embryo implants and develops into a foetus.

  • What is the function of the cervix?

    A ring of muscle at the lower end of the uterus that keeps the developing foetus in place during pregnancy.

  • What is the function of the vagina?

    A muscular tube leading into the body, where the penis enters and sperm are deposited during intercourse.

  • The oviduct is lined with ________ cells that push the released ovum along.

    The oviduct is lined with ciliated cells that push the released ovum along.

  • The testes are held outside the body in a sac of skin called the ________.

    The testes are held outside the body in a sac of skin called the scrotum.

  • True or False?

    Fertilisation occurs in the uterus.

    False.

    Fertilisation occurs in the oviduct. The embryo then implants in the uterus.

  • True or False?

    The male urethra can carry both urine and semen.

    True.

    A ring of muscle in the urethra stops the two from mixing.

  • How long does an average menstrual cycle last?

    About 28 days, though it varies between individuals.

  • Define ovulation.

    The release of an egg from an ovary, which then travels along the fallopian tube towards the uterus.

    It occurs around day 14 of the cycle.

  • Define menstruation.

    The breakdown and shedding of the uterine lining (endometrium) through the vagina, when the egg has not been fertilised.

    It usually lasts 5–7 days.

  • What happens to oestrogen levels through the cycle?

    They rise from day 1 to peak just before day 14, immediately before the egg is released.

  • What two effects does rising oestrogen have?

    • It causes the uterine wall to start thickening

    • It causes the egg to mature

  • What happens to progesterone levels through the cycle?

    They stay low from day 1 to 14, then rise once ovulation has occurred.

  • What effect does rising progesterone have?

    It causes the uterine lining to thicken further, ready for a fertilised egg to implant.

  • What triggers menstruation?

    A fall in progesterone levels, which causes the uterine lining to break down.

  • What happens to the uterine lining after menstruation?

    It thickens again in response to hormones, preparing for the possible implantation of a fertilised egg.

  • When does the menstrual cycle begin?

    After puberty, usually in early adolescence — around age 11–14.

  • Ovulation occurs around day ________ of the menstrual cycle.

    Ovulation occurs around day 14 of the menstrual cycle.

  • A fall in ________ levels causes the uterine lining to break down.

    A fall in progesterone levels causes the uterine lining to break down.

  • True or False?

    Oestrogen peaks just before ovulation.

    True.

    Oestrogen rises from day 1 and peaks just before day 14, immediately before the egg is released.

  • True or False?

    Progesterone levels are highest at the start of the cycle.

    False.

    Progesterone stays low from day 1 to 14 and only rises after ovulation.

  • What happens to the zygote after fertilisation in the oviduct?

    It divides to form an embryo and travels to the uterus, where it implants in the uterine lining.

  • What is the role of the placenta?

    To enable the exchange of substances between the mother's blood and the blood of the fetus.

  • Which substances travel from the mother's blood to the fetus?

    • Oxygen

    • Nutrients — glucose, amino acids, vitamins and mineral ions

    • Antibodies

  • Which substances travel from the fetus's blood to the mother?

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Urea

  • Do the mother's and the fetus's blood supplies mix?

    No. They come into very close proximity in the placenta, but the two blood supplies never mix.

  • What is the function of the umbilical cord?

    It connects the fetus's blood supply to the placenta.

  • Why is the placenta an efficient exchange surface?

    • It has a large surface area

    • It has a thin wall, for efficient diffusion

  • Why does the fetus need glucose and amino acids from the mother?

    • Glucose for respiration, to release the energy needed for growth

    • Amino acids to build the proteins it needs to make new tissue

  • By which process do substances cross the placenta?

    Diffusion, down the concentration gradient between the mother's blood and the blood of the fetus.

  • Where does the placenta form?

    At the implantation site, where the embryo embeds in the uterine lining.

  • The ________ connects the fetus's blood supply to the placenta.

    The umbilical cord connects the fetus's blood supply to the placenta.

  • Waste products such as carbon dioxide and ________ pass from the fetus to the mother.

    Waste products such as carbon dioxide and urea pass from the fetus to the mother.

  • True or False?

    The fetus gets its oxygen by breathing inside the uterus.

    False.

    Its lungs are not yet in use. Oxygen diffuses from the mother's blood across the placenta.

  • True or False?

    The mother's and fetus's blood mix in the placenta.

    False.

    They come very close so substances can diffuse between them, but the two supplies remain separate.

  • Define amniotic fluid.

    The fluid that surrounds the developing embryo in the uterus, contained within the amniotic sac.

  • What is the function of amniotic fluid?

    It protects the embryo or fetus during development, by cushioning it from bumps when the mother moves around.

  • What is the amniotic fluid contained within?

    The amniotic membrane, also known as the amniotic sac.

  • Where is the developing embryo surrounded by amniotic fluid?

    In the uterus.

  • Why does the fetus need cushioning?

    Because the mother moves around, and the fluid absorbs the resulting bumps and knocks.

  • Give another name for the amniotic membrane.

    The amniotic sac.

  • Which two structures protect and supply the fetus in the uterus?

    • The amniotic fluid, which protects it physically

    • The placenta, which supplies nutrients and oxygen and removes waste

  • The developing embryo is surrounded by ________ fluid, which cushions it from bumps.

    The developing embryo is surrounded by amniotic fluid, which cushions it from bumps.

  • Amniotic fluid is held inside the amniotic ________.

    Amniotic fluid is held inside the amniotic sac.

  • True or False?

    Amniotic fluid supplies the fetus with nutrients.

    False.

    Its role is physical protection. Nutrients and oxygen are supplied by the placenta.

  • True or False?

    Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus when the mother moves.

    True.

    This is how it protects the embryo and fetus during development.

  • Which develops inside the amniotic sac — the embryo or the placenta?

    The embryo, and later the fetus.

    The placenta forms at the implantation site in the uterine lining, outside the sac.

  • Define secondary sexual characteristics.

    The changes that occur during puberty, whose development is controlled by the release of hormones.

  • Which hormone controls secondary sexual characteristics in females?

    Oestrogen.

  • Which hormone controls secondary sexual characteristics in males?

    Testosterone.

  • Name four effects of oestrogen at puberty.

    • Development of breasts

    • Body hair grows

    • The menstrual cycle begins

    • Hips get wider

  • Name five effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • Growth of the penis and testes

    • Growth of facial and body hair

    • Muscles develop

    • The voice breaks

    • The testes start to produce sperm

  • Which two changes happen in both males and females?

    • Growth of the sexual organs

    • Growth of body hair

  • At what stage of life do secondary sexual characteristics develop?

    During puberty, when levels of oestrogen in females and testosterone in males rise.

  • Which change to the voice does testosterone cause?

    The voice breaks — it deepens.

  • In females, secondary sexual characteristics are controlled by ________.

    In females, secondary sexual characteristics are controlled by oestrogen.

  • Testosterone causes the male voice to ________ during puberty.

    Testosterone causes the male voice to break during puberty.

  • True or False?

    Body hair growth happens in both males and females at puberty.

    True.

    Along with growth of the sexual organs, it is one of the changes common to both.

  • True or False?

    Testosterone controls secondary sexual characteristics in females.

    False.

    Oestrogen controls them in females. Testosterone controls them in males.

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