Business Strategy (A Level) (Cambridge (CIE) A Level Business): Flashcards

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  • Define business strategy.

    Business strategy is a medium- to long-term plan that shows how a business will reach its main goals.

  • True or False?

    A business strategy encourages each department to pursue its own separate goals.

    False.

    A business strategy gives everyone a common goal, so that departments pull in the same direction.

  • How does a business strategy help with resource allocation?

    It helps managers decide where to spend time and money and how to use staff to get the best results.

  • How does a business strategy help a business gain a competitive advantage?

    It outlines how the business will stand out from rivals, through low costs, innovation, service or a niche market.

  • Business strategy supports _____________ by anticipating threats, such as new rivals or regulations, and planning how to reduce or avoid them.

    Business strategy supports risk management by anticipating threats, such as new rivals or regulations, and planning how to reduce or avoid them.

  • How does a business strategy support performance measurement?

    It provides targets against which progress can be tracked and improvements made.

  • Define strategic management.

    Strategic management is the ongoing process of choosing long-term goals, planning how to reach them, putting plans into action and regularly reviewing results to keep the business on course.

  • What are the three stages of the strategic management process?

    The three stages are analysis, choice and implementation, which form a continuous loop.

  • What happens at the analysis stage of strategic management?

    Managers examine external factors, such as markets, competitors, laws and the economy, and internal factors, such as staff skills, costs and culture. Tools such as SWOT or PESTLE help organise the findings.

  • At the choice stage of strategic management, senior managers turn the _____ into clear targets and pick the best way to reach them.

    At the choice stage of strategic management, senior managers turn the mission into clear targets and pick the best way to reach them.

  • True or False?

    Implementation includes measuring progress against targets and adjusting the strategy where gaps appear.

    True.

    Implementation involves allocating resources and setting departmental objectives, and progress is measured against targets so managers can adjust the strategy when needed.

  • How does strategic management help a business make a quick response to change?

    Regular scanning of markets, technology and laws helps managers adjust plans before problems grow.

  • Define SWOT analysis.

    SWOT analysis is an analytical tool used to identify a business's internal strengths and weaknesses and its external opportunities and threats.

  • True or False?

    Managers should rely mainly on their own hunches when compiling a SWOT analysis.

    False.

    Financial and operations data and staff or customer feedback should be reviewed carefully rather than relying on hunches, and findings should be cross-checked with independent reports.

  • What must managers decide before compiling a SWOT analysis?

    They must decide whether the whole business, a specific product or a new project is to be analysed.

  • What are examples of strengths that might appear in a SWOT analysis?

    Examples include skilled staff, patents or intellectual property, a loyal customer base and effective leadership.

  • Social or technological developments that threaten the __________ of a business's products are a threat in a SWOT analysis.

    Social or technological developments that threaten the obsolescence of a business's products are a threat in a SWOT analysis.

  • How should a business act on each element of a completed SWOT analysis?

    Strengths should be harnessed, weaknesses eliminated, opportunities seized and threats mitigated.

  • How does SWOT analysis help managers set priorities?

    Matching strengths to opportunities and threats to weaknesses helps managers decide which goals to tackle first.

  • True or False?

    A SWOT analysis on its own does not tell managers how to fix weaknesses or use strengths.

    True.

    SWOT highlights issues but gives no clear action steps, so extra tools and planning are often still needed.

  • Why is SWOT analysis described as low-cost and flexible?

    It needs only discussion and basic research, and it can be updated quickly when conditions change.

  • A SWOT analysis shows conditions at one moment in time, so it is only a ______ that can go out of date quickly.

    A SWOT analysis shows conditions at one moment in time, so it is only a snapshot that can go out of date quickly.

  • Why can personal bias reduce the accuracy of a SWOT analysis?

    The points in each box reflect who is in the room, so subjective opinions can lead to flawed conclusions.

  • How does stakeholder involvement affect the usefulness of a SWOT analysis?

    Involving stakeholders brings diverse perspectives, giving a broader understanding of the business and increasing the usefulness of the analysis.

  • Define PEST analysis.

    PEST analysis examines the political, economic, social and technological factors outside a business that are likely to affect its activities and outcomes.

  • How can PEST analysis support decision-making by senior managers?

    It helps them understand the complex context in which the business operates, recognise potential threats and identify future difficulties so that appropriate strategies can be put in place.

  • True or False?

    Minimum-wage laws are a political factor in a PEST analysis.

    True.

    Political factors include government stability, trade rules, taxes, minimum-wage laws and health and safety regulations.

  • True or False?

    Rising fuel prices are a technological factor in a PEST analysis.

    False.

    Rising fuel prices are an economic factor, as they raise delivery costs for businesses such as online retailers.

  • Which economic factors might be considered in a PEST analysis?

    Economic factors include inflation, exchange rates, GDP growth, unemployment and the cost of living.

  • How might a higher sugar tax affect the strategy of soft-drink makers?

    A higher sugar tax may push soft-drink makers to launch low-sugar recipes.

  • How can faster 5G networks create an opportunity for video-streaming businesses?

    Faster 5G networks let video-streaming businesses offer higher-quality content on mobile devices.

  • How might growing numbers of eco-conscious shoppers affect businesses?

    A rise in eco-conscious shoppers can boost sales of environmentally friendly products, such as refillable toiletries.

  • PEST analysis helps managers develop strategies to ________ on positive external influences and minimise the impact of negative ones.

    PEST analysis helps managers develop strategies to capitalise on positive external influences and minimise the impact of negative ones.

  • How might a business respond to differing local regulations identified in a PEST analysis?

    It could add automatic rule checks, such as requiring licence numbers and collecting any required taxes, so that it avoids fines for breaking local laws.

  • What are the five forces in Porter's Five Forces model?

    The five forces are industry rivalry, threat of new entry, buyer power, supplier power and threat of substitution.

  • True or False?

    When a few customers buy most of an industry's output, businesses can charge them higher prices.

    False.

    When few customers buy most of the output, buyer power is high, so those customers can demand lower prices.

  • High ______ to entry keep new rivals out of an industry and preserve the power of existing businesses.

    High barriers to entry keep new rivals out of an industry and preserve the power of existing businesses.

  • True or False?

    Supplier power is high when only a few suppliers offer unique inputs.

    True.

    When few suppliers offer unique inputs, they can dictate terms and charge higher prices.

  • On what two bases do Porter's generic strategies suggest a business can compete?

    A business can compete on the basis of cost or differentiation, in either the mass market or a niche market.

  • Which generic strategy suits a mass-market business with a significant cost advantage over rivals?

    Cost leadership is most suitable for a business with a significant cost advantage over rivals.

  • How does a differentiation strategy benefit a mass-market business?

    Making products distinct from those of rivals allows the business to charge a premium price and achieve a high profit margin.

  • Define cost focus.

    Cost focus is a niche market strategy that involves being the lowest-cost competitor within the market niche.

  • A business that fails to adopt one of Porter's generic strategies risks being stuck in the ____, unable to compete successfully with rivals.

    A business that fails to adopt one of Porter's generic strategies risks being stuck in the middle, unable to compete successfully with rivals.

  • True or False?

    Porter argued that a business can successfully combine cost leadership and differentiation in the long term.

    False.

    Porter saw a mixture of strategies as not feasible in the long term, because low prices combined with high quality can harm consumer perceptions of the product.

  • What is a key drawback of Porter's generic strategies?

    They give no guidance on specific tactics or implementation, and they overlook external factors such as technological change, economic conditions and changes in laws.

  • Define Blue Ocean strategy.

    Blue Ocean strategy is the simultaneous pursuit of differentiation and low-cost strategies to open up a new market space and create new demand.

  • What are the four actions in the Four Actions Framework?

    The four actions are raise, create, reduce and eliminate.

  • Blue Ocean strategy captures uncontested market space with products other businesses have not yet adopted, making competition ________.

    Blue Ocean strategy captures uncontested market space with products other businesses have not yet adopted, making competition irrelevant.

  • Define core competencies.

    Core competencies are the capabilities critical for a business to achieve competitive advantage by delivering real value to customers.

  • Define collective learning.

    Collective learning is a business's knowledge, including assets such as patents and designs as well as industry know-how, built up over time.

  • Core competencies combine collective learning with ______________, such as production skills, unique processes and applications of technology.

    Core competencies combine collective learning with technical skills, such as production skills, unique processes and applications of technology.

  • True or False?

    Every strength a business has is a core competence.

    False.

    A business may have many strengths, but they are only core competencies if they possess three key features.

  • What are the three key features of core competencies?

    Core competencies must provide broad market access, create customer value and be difficult to imitate.

  • Why is it valuable for a core competence to apply across many products or markets?

    Applying it widely spreads the cost of building the skill or technology over many products, making it valuable and efficient.

  • Why must a core competence translate into a clear market advantage?

    Without an advantage such as higher prices, greater loyalty or a stronger reputation, it will not help the business achieve long-term success.

  • What happens if competitors can quickly replicate a business's strengths?

    The business loses its advantage, which is why true core competencies rely on specific knowledge, unique culture, protected intellectual property or complex processes.

  • Because rivals find core competencies hard to copy, they give a business sustainable _____________, so its products stand out in the market.

    Because rivals find core competencies hard to copy, they give a business sustainable differentiation, so its products stand out in the market.

  • How do core competencies make market expansion easier?

    They can be applied to launch new products or enter new markets quickly and with greater confidence.

  • True or False?

    Outsourcing key tasks can cause a business to lose skills it needs to solve problems.

    True.

    Paying other firms to handle key tasks can mean losing in-house know-how needed to fix problems fast.

  • Why can over-focusing on one core competence cause inflexibility?

    It can blind a business to new opportunities, making it slow to adapt when markets change.

  • Why does developing a core competence carry financial risk?

    Large investments in new technology or processes may never pay off if rivals catch up or demand stays low.

  • What is the purpose of the Ansoff Matrix?

    The Ansoff Matrix helps a business with a growth objective to identify an appropriate strategic direction and the level of risk of the chosen strategy.

  • Which two categories does the Ansoff Matrix use to classify growth strategies?

    The Ansoff Matrix classifies growth strategies by the market (existing or new) and the product (existing or new).

  • Define market penetration.

    Market penetration is a growth strategy that involves selling more existing products to existing customers.

  • True or False?

    Market penetration is the least risky of the four Ansoff growth strategies.

    True.

    Market penetration is the least risky strategy because the business stays with existing products and existing customers that it already understands.

  • How can a business encourage existing customers to buy more as part of market penetration?

    It can encourage more regular use of the product, increased usage of the product and stronger brand loyalty.

  • Define market development.

    Market development involves finding and exploiting new market opportunities for existing products.

  • Selling an existing product to different customer profiles, such as other businesses as well as consumers, is known as ___________ the product.

    Selling an existing product to different customer profiles, such as other businesses as well as consumers, is known as repositioning the product.

  • Apart from selling to different customer profiles, give two ways a business can achieve market development.

    A business can enter new markets abroad or seek complementary locations for its existing products.

  • Define product development.

    Product development involves selling new or improved products to existing customers.

  • Relaunching ______ products at commercially convenient intervals is one way to pursue product development.

    Relaunching heritage products at commercially convenient intervals is one way to pursue product development.

  • True or False?

    Redesigning packaging cannot count as product development because the core product is unchanged.

    False.

    Redesigning packaging and aesthetic features offers an improved product to existing customers, so it is a recognised method of product development.

  • Define diversification.

    Diversification is a growth strategy that involves targeting new customers with entirely new or redeveloped products.

  • True or False?

    Diversification is less risky than market development because the business gains a new product range.

    False.

    Diversification is the most risky growth strategy because the business moves into a new market with a new product at the same time.

  • Define force field analysis.

    Force field analysis involves managers identifying the driving and restraining forces that surround a strategic change decision.

  • Give two external driving forces that could justify strategic change.

    External driving forces include a volatile market and disruptive technologies, such as AI.

  • True or False?

    Government legislation is an example of an internal restraining force.

    False.

    Government legislation is an external restraining force. Internal restraining forces include fear of the unknown and the existing organisational structure.

  • On what scale are forces weighted in force field analysis?

    Each force is weighted from 1 to 5 by its relative importance, where 5 is most important and 1 is least important.

  • Driving forces are weighted 5, 3 and 1. Restraining forces are weighted 4, 2 and 4. Using force field analysis, should the decision go ahead?

    Driving forces total 9 and restraining forces total 10. As the restraining forces outweigh the driving forces, there is little chance of success and the decision should be abandoned.

  • To maximise the chance of success, managers could strengthen driving forces or ____ or eliminate restraining forces.

    To maximise the chance of success, managers could strengthen driving forces or weaken or eliminate restraining forces.

  • True or False?

    Force field analysis is a diagnostic tool rather than a prescriptive one.

    True.

    Force field analysis does not provide solutions. It identifies the forces involved, and managers must then develop appropriate strategies themselves.

  • Give two strengths of force field analysis.

    It is simple and visual, so stakeholders understand it easily. It is also comprehensive, as it considers both driving and restraining forces.

  • Why is force field analysis described as a snapshot?

    It does not account for how forces might change over time, which is a problem in dynamic business environments.

  • Why can force field analysis be subjective?

    It relies on the perceptions and judgements of individuals or teams, which can lead to bias in the analysis.

  • Define scenario planning.

    Scenario planning is used to prepare for different possible futures by imagining several plausible "what-if" situations, rather than predicting exactly what will happen.

  • In scenario planning, why do managers compare strategies across scenarios?

    Comparing scenarios helps managers spot overlapping strategies that help no matter which future arrives, such as building a flexible supply chain.

  • In scenario planning, a business agrees on a few key ________ to watch, so it knows which scenario is becoming more likely.

    In scenario planning, a business agrees on a few key indicators to watch, so it knows which scenario is becoming more likely.

  • Give two benefits of scenario planning.

    Scenario planning helps avoid surprises because possibilities are thought through in advance. It also focuses on flexibility, as the firm builds capabilities that help in several different futures.

  • Define decision tree.

    A decision tree is a quantitative method of tracing the outcomes of a decision so that the most profitable decision can be identified.

  • What do decision trees use to calculate likely outcomes?

    Decision trees use research-based estimates and probabilities to calculate likely outcomes.

  • Give two advantages of using decision trees.

    Constructing a decision tree may reveal options that had not been considered. It also forces managers to consider the risks of their choice before implementation.

  • True or False?

    Decision trees take full account of qualitative factors such as human resource impacts.

    False.

    Qualitative elements, such as human resource impacts, are not considered, and this may affect the probability of success of a decision.

  • The ______ between constructing a decision tree and implementing the decision affects the reliability of expected values.

    The time lag between constructing a decision tree and implementing the decision affects the reliability of expected values.

  • What shape represents a decision point on a decision tree?

    A decision point is represented by a square.

  • Points on a decision tree where there are different outcomes are represented by circles called ___.

    Points on a decision tree where there are different outcomes are represented by circles called nodes.

  • True or False?

    On a decision tree, a certain outcome has a probability of 1.

    True.

    A certain outcome has a probability of 1, while an impossible outcome has a probability of 0.

  • How is the expected monetary value of a decision calculated?

    Expected monetary value is calculated using this formula:

    Expected monetary value = (Expected value of success x Probability) + (Expected value of failure x Probability)

  • Opening a new store has a 0.7 probability of a £420,000 profit and a 0.3 probability of a £24,000 loss. What is the expected monetary value of opening the store?

    The expected monetary value is (£420,000 × 0.7) + (−£24,000 × 0.3) = £286,800.

  • How is expected monetary value calculated when a decision tree shows expected revenues and costs?

    The cost of the option must be deducted, using this formula:

    Expected monetary value = (Expected value of success x Probability) + (Expected value of failure x Probability) - Cost

  • What should a business do if the expected values of two options are very close?

    The business should look at other factors to inform its decision, as there is little between the two options.

  • Define corporate planning.

    Corporate planning is the process taken by senior managers to decide on long-term goals and draw up broad plans for how the entire organisation will achieve them.

  • Give two reasons why corporate planning is important.

    Corporate planning sets a clear direction, so everyone works towards the same goals. It also aligns resources, so money, staff and equipment are used most effectively.

  • Define strategic change.

    Strategic change is a major shift in a company's long-term direction, such as altering its goals, core policies or scope.

  • Define incremental change.

    Incremental change is a series of small, gradual improvements to processes, products or structures, rather than a single large overhaul.

  • A radical shift that transforms an industry by introducing a new business model, technology or way of operating is called ________ change.

    A radical shift that transforms an industry by introducing a new business model, technology or way of operating is called disruptive change.

  • Give two benefits of a radical change that transforms an industry or market.

    Such a change can bring first mover advantage, securing market leadership. It can also offer rapid growth potential by creating a new market or completely changing an existing one.

  • Define resistance to change.

    Resistance to change is the unwillingness to adapt to new circumstances or ways of doing things.

  • True or False?

    Resistance to change caused by different assessments is simply another form of self-interest.

    False.

    Different assessments reflect genuine debate over what is best for the business, as people disagree on what the problem is or how to fix it.

  • Give two steps managers can take to overcome workers' resistance to change.

    Managers can meet one-on-one with concerned employees to build trust. They can also offer incentives for early adopters, such as bonuses or public praise.

  • Define corporate culture.

    Corporate culture is the personality of an organisation, including the shared values, beliefs, attitudes and practices that shape the way people work together.

  • Give two signs of a weak corporate culture.

    A weak culture may show a "them and us" attitude between workers and management. It may also have high staff turnover and low commitment amongst staff.

  • True or False?

    A very cautious corporate culture may delay decisions, even when the market changes.

    True.

    A cautious culture tends to stick with familiar products, whereas a culture that values creativity encourages managers to try new ideas.

  • Define transformational leadership.

    Transformational leadership is a style where leaders inspire and motivate employees to exceed normal expectations by creating a clear, positive vision of the future.

  • Give two behaviours of a transformational leader.

    A transformational leader communicates a strong sense of purpose, explaining why change matters. They also lead by example, showing the commitment and behaviours they expect from others.

  • Define contingency planning.

    Contingency planning involves a business predicting risky or unwanted events, then developing a set of suitable responses.

  • What do contingency procedures for risks such as fire commonly include?

    Procedures commonly include evacuation plans that are drawn up and practised, emergency responsibilities for key staff and regular testing of alarm systems.

  • True or False?

    Contingency planning is a quick and low-cost process for a business.

    False.

    Detailed contingency plans require time and investment, as risk assessments take management time, plans must be revisited and staff need training.

  • How does contingency planning help a business to respond immediately to a crisis?

    Staff have clear roles and responsibilities, resources are identified and available, and procedures are shared in advance.

  • Spending on resources for a crisis may be ____ if they are never needed.

    Spending on resources for a crisis may be wasted if they are never needed.

  • True or False?

    Contingency planning cannot fully overcome human reactions such as fear and panic.

    True.

    Even with detailed procedures in place, human reactions such as fear and panic cannot be fully mitigated.

  • Define crisis management.

    Crisis management is the immediate handling of a disruptive and unexpected event, including communication, coordination, resource mobilisation and decision-making under pressure.

  • Which leadership approach could help ensure business continuity during a crisis?

    Autocratic leadership with centralised decision-making could help ensure business continuity during a crisis.

  • True or False?

    A crisis must be large-scale, such as a natural disaster, to need a crisis management response.

    False.

    Crises do not have to be large-scale. The unexpected loss of a CEO, a warehouse fire or losing customers' data can all need a prompt response.

  • Why is speed important in crisis management?

    A rapid response can contain or reduce damage to the business.

  • Keeping customers informed and telling the truth during a crisis shows __________, which can protect reputation.

    Keeping customers informed and telling the truth during a crisis shows transparency, which can protect reputation.

  • How can rapid communication help a business during a crisis?

    The rapid issue of press releases can reassure stakeholders and reduce recovery time.

  • Why is planning for a crisis still worthwhile, even though it cannot eliminate the risk of disruption?

    Planning can improve business resilience and reduce negative impacts. It also gives stakeholders greater confidence in the business.

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