Exam code: 8465
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What is cellular respiration?
Cellular respiration is an exothermic reaction that occurs continuously in living cells, releasing energy from glucose to supply all the energy needed for living processes.

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Give three reasons why organisms need energy from respiration.
Organisms need energy for:
Chemical reactions to build larger molecules
Muscle contraction to allow movement
Keeping warm to maintain a constant body temperature
True or False?
Aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
True.
Aerobic respiration uses oxygen to fully oxidise glucose, releasing energy. Most of the reactions take place in the mitochondria.
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What is cellular respiration?
Cellular respiration is an exothermic reaction that occurs continuously in living cells, releasing energy from glucose to supply all the energy needed for living processes.
Give three reasons why organisms need energy from respiration.
Organisms need energy for:
Chemical reactions to build larger molecules
Muscle contraction to allow movement
Keeping warm to maintain a constant body temperature
True or False?
Aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
True.
Aerobic respiration uses oxygen to fully oxidise glucose, releasing energy. Most of the reactions take place in the mitochondria.
glucose + .......... → carbon dioxide + ..........
Complete the word equation for aerobic respiration:
glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in animals?
The word equation is: glucose → lactic acid.
A build-up of lactic acid in muscles causes fatigue and discomfort, and creates an oxygen debt that must be repaid after exercise.
True or False?
Anaerobic respiration transfers more energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
False.
Anaerobic respiration involves the incomplete oxidation of glucose, so it transfers much less energy than aerobic respiration.
After intense exercise, breathing and heart rate remain high to repay the .........., which is the extra oxygen needed to break down the accumulated .......... in the muscles.
After intense exercise, breathing and heart rate remain high to repay the oxygen debt, which is the extra oxygen needed to break down the accumulated lactic acid in the muscles.
Give three differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration uses oxygen; anaerobic respiration does not.
Aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide and water; anaerobic respiration (in animals) produces lactic acid.
Aerobic respiration transfers more energy per glucose molecule.
True or False?
Cellular respiration is the same process as breathing.
False.
Cellular respiration is a chemical reaction in cells that releases energy from glucose. Breathing (ventilation) is the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs — these are two separate processes.
What is surface area to volume ratio?
Surface area to volume ratio (SA:V ratio) is the comparison of an organism's surface area to its volume. A large SA:V ratio means substances can be exchanged more easily by diffusion alone.
True or False?
As an organism gets larger, its surface area to volume ratio increases.
False.
As an organism gets larger, its surface area to volume ratio decreases. This means large, multicellular organisms cannot rely on diffusion alone to meet their needs.
What is the correct order of the levels of organisation in a multicellular organism?
The order is:
Cells → specialised to carry out specific functions
Tissues → groups of similar cells
Organs → groups of tissues working together
Organ systems → groups of organs performing a function
A .......... is made up of cells with a similar structure and function. Several of these combine to form an .........., and groups of organs form an .......... system.
A tissue is made up of cells with a similar structure and function. Several of these combine to form an organ, and groups of organs form an organ system.
True or False?
A single-celled organism has a large surface area to volume ratio, so it can exchange substances by diffusion alone.
True.
Single-celled organisms have a large surface area to volume ratio, which means diffusion, osmosis, and active transport across their cell membrane are sufficient to exchange all the substances they need without a specialised transport system.
Give four features that increase the effectiveness of an exchange surface in a multicellular animal.
Give four features that increase the effectiveness of an exchange surface in a multicellular animal.
Large surface area: allows more particles to diffuse at once
Thin membrane: provides a short diffusion distance
Efficient blood supply: maintains a steep concentration gradient
Ventilation (for gas exchange): keeps oxygen levels high and carbon dioxide levels low
The alveoli in the lungs, the .......... in the small intestine, and .......... cells in plant roots are all examples of specialised exchange surfaces.
The alveoli in the lungs, the villi in the small intestine, and root hair cells in plant roots are all examples of specialised exchange surfaces.
Why do large multicellular organisms need specialised exchange surfaces and transport systems?
Large multicellular organisms have a small surface area to volume ratio, so diffusion alone is too slow to supply all cells with what they need. Specialised exchange surfaces and transport systems (such as the circulatory system) ensure materials reach every cell efficiently.
Why is the human circulatory system described as a double circulatory system?
The human circulatory system is a double circulatory system because blood passes through the heart twice for each full circuit of the body — once to the lungs and once to the rest of the body.
Deoxygenated blood enters the right .......... via the vena cava, is pumped to the lungs via the .......... artery, and returns to the left .......... via the pulmonary vein.
Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium via the vena cava, is pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary artery, and returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary vein.
True or False?
The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle.
True.
The left ventricle has the thickest wall because it must pump oxygenated blood at high pressure around the entire body. The right ventricle only pumps blood to the nearby lungs.
What is a pacemaker (natural)?
The pacemaker is a group of cells located in the right atrium that controls the natural resting heart rate by sending out electrical impulses that cause the heart muscle to contract.
How does an artificial pacemaker work, and when is it used?
An artificial pacemaker is an electrical device implanted under the skin that delivers electrical impulses to the heart muscle to correct irregularities in the heart rate, such as when the natural pacemaker stops functioning correctly.
Give two structural differences between an artery and a vein.
Arteries have thick walls with elastic fibres and a narrow lumen; veins have thinner walls and a wider lumen.
Veins contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood; arteries do not.
True or False?
Capillary walls are one cell thick to allow efficient exchange of substances with body tissues.
True.
Capillary walls are just one cell thick (a single layer of endothelial cells), which minimises the diffusion distance for oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances between the blood and body cells.
In the lungs, .......... diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood, while .......... diffuses from the blood into the alveoli.
In the lungs, oxygen diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood, while carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the alveoli.
Name the four structures air passes through as it travels from the trachea to the alveoli.
Air travels through:
Trachea
Bronchi (one per lung)
Bronchioles
Alveoli
What is haemoglobin?
Haemoglobin is the protein found in red blood cells that binds reversibly with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin, allowing red blood cells to transport oxygen around the body.
Give two structural adaptations of a red blood cell and explain how each helps it carry oxygen.
Give two structural adaptations of a red blood cell and explain how each helps it carry oxygen.
Biconcave disc shape: gives a large surface area to volume ratio, maximising the rate of diffusion of oxygen into and out of the cell.
No nucleus: leaves more space for haemoglobin, increasing the amount of oxygen each cell can carry.
True or False?
Platelets are complete cells with a nucleus.
False.
Platelets are fragments of cells — they contain cytoplasm but no nucleus. Their role is to help form blood clots when a blood vessel is damaged.
Blood is a tissue consisting of .........., in which red blood cells, white blood cells and .......... are suspended.
Blood is a tissue consisting of plasma, in which red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets are suspended.
Describe three ways in which white blood cells defend the body against infection.
Phagocytes engulf and digest pathogens.
Lymphocytes produce specific antibodies that clump pathogens together or disable them.
Some lymphocytes produce antitoxins that neutralise toxic substances produced by pathogens.
True or False?
Red blood cells carry oxygen by combining it reversibly with haemoglobin.
True.
Oxygen combines reversibly with haemoglobin in red blood cells to form oxyhaemoglobin. This is reversed in body tissues, releasing oxygen to the cells.
.......... engulf and digest pathogens, while .......... produce antibodies and antitoxins as part of the immune response.
Phagocytes engulf and digest pathogens, while lymphocytes produce antibodies and antitoxins as part of the immune response.
What is the role of plasma in the blood?
Plasma is the liquid part of blood (mainly water with dissolved substances). It transports dissolved food molecules, carbon dioxide, urea, hormones, and heat around the body.
What is digestion?
Digestion is the process of breaking down large, insoluble molecules in food into small, soluble molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to body cells.
What is the role of enzymes in digestion?
Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up the breakdown of large food molecules. The three main types are carbohydrases (break down carbohydrates), proteases (break down proteins) and lipases (break down lipids).
Starch is broken down by .......... enzymes into glucose. Glucose is then absorbed into the blood and used by cells during .......... to release energy.
Starch is broken down by carbohydrase enzymes into glucose. Glucose is then absorbed into the blood and used by cells during respiration to release energy.
True or False?
Amylase is a carbohydrase enzyme produced in the salivary glands and pancreas.
True.
Amylase is a carbohydrase that breaks down starch into maltose. It is produced in the salivary glands and the pancreas.
What happens to excess amino acids in the body?
Excess amino acids cannot be stored. The liver breaks them down to form urea, which is then transported in the blood to the kidneys, which excrete it in urine.
Protease enzymes break down proteins into .......... in the stomach and small intestine. Cells then use these to make .......... for growth and repair.
Protease enzymes break down proteins into amino acids in the stomach and small intestine. Cells then use these to make new proteins for growth and repair.
True or False?
Lipase enzymes break down lipids into glucose and water.
False.
Lipase enzymes break down lipids into glycerol and fatty acids (not glucose and water). These can be reformed into fats and stored as an energy reserve.
Why are lipids important as an energy reserve in the body?
Lipids (fats and oils) are stored as an energy reserve because cells can break them down and use them in respiration when needed. Lipase enzymes digest lipids into glycerol and fatty acids.
Where are lipase enzymes produced and where do they act?
Lipase enzymes are produced in the pancreas and are secreted into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine), where they break down lipids.
What is a qualitative food test?
A qualitative food test is a test that indicates whether a substance is present or absent in a sample. It is identified by a colour change but does not tell you how much of the substance is present.
The .......... test is used to detect reducing sugars. A positive result shows a colour change from blue to ..........
The Benedict's test is used to detect reducing sugars. A positive result shows a colour change from blue to brick-red (orange-red).
True or False?
A positive iodine test for starch produces a colour change from yellow-brown to blue-black.
True.
When iodine solution is added to a starch-containing sample, it turns from yellow-brown to blue-black, indicating the presence of starch.
What colour change indicates a positive Biuret test for protein?
A positive Biuret test produces a colour change from blue to purple. The Biuret reagent contains sodium hydroxide and copper(II) sulfate solution.
To test for lipids, the .......... test is used. The sample is mixed with .........., which is then added to water. A positive result is a .......... emulsion.
To test for lipids, the emulsion test is used. The sample is mixed with ethanol, which is then added to water. A positive result is a cloudy white emulsion.
True or False?
Ethanol should be kept away from the Bunsen burner during the emulsion test because it is highly flammable.
True.
Ethanol is highly flammable and must be kept away from the Bunsen burner used in the Benedict's test. The Bunsen should be turned off completely before ethanol is used.
Why should goggles be worn throughout the food tests practical?
Goggles should be worn because:
Biuret solution contains copper(II) sulfate and sodium hydroxide, which are harmful, especially to the eyes.
Iodine solution is also an irritant to the eyes.
Describe how you would prepare a solid food sample before carrying out food tests.
Grind the food using a pestle and mortar.
Transfer to a test tube and add distilled water.
Stir with a glass rod to mix.
Filter the mixture using a funnel and filter paper.
Use the collected solution for the food tests.
What is the central nervous system (CNS)?
The central nervous system (CNS) is the coordinator of the body, made up of the brain and the spinal cord.
What is the correct order of the pathway through the nervous system?
The correct order is:
stimulus → receptor → coordinator → effector → response
True or False?
Neurones carry information as electrical impulses along nerve cells.
True.
Information travels through the nervous system as electrical impulses that pass along nerve cells called neurones.
Neurones are insulated by a fatty .......... which speeds up the transmission of electrical impulses.
Neurones are insulated by a fatty myelin sheath which speeds up the transmission of electrical impulses.
What is a reflex action?
A reflex action is an automatic and rapid response to a stimulus that does not involve the conscious part of the brain.
In a reflex arc, what is the role of a relay neurone?
A relay neurone carries electrical impulses within the CNS (spinal cord or brain), connecting the sensory neurone to the motor neurone.
True or False?
Neurones touch each other directly to pass electrical impulses from one to the next.
False.
Neurones never touch. They are separated by tiny gaps called synapses. Neurotransmitters are released to carry signals across these gaps.
In a reflex arc, the .......... neurone carries impulses from the receptor to the spinal cord, while the .......... neurone carries impulses from the CNS to the effector.
In a reflex arc, the sensory neurone carries impulses from the receptor to the spinal cord, while the motor neurone carries impulses from the CNS to the effector.
Why are reflex actions important for survival?
Reflex actions are automatic and rapid, which means they help to minimise damage to the body without waiting for the brain to consciously process the stimulus.
What is reaction time?
Reaction time is the time taken for a person to respond to a stimulus. It typically takes less than a second and can range from around 0.3 s to 0.9 s.
How is the ruler drop test used to measure reaction time?
A ruler is dropped and the participant catches it. The further down the ruler is caught, the slower the reaction time, because the ruler has fallen further before being caught.
True or False?
In a ruler drop test, catching the ruler higher up indicates a faster reaction time.
True.
The shorter the distance the ruler falls before being caught, the faster the reaction time.
Reaction time can be affected by factors such as .........., stress or the use of drugs such as ...........
Reaction time can be affected by factors such as age, stress or the use of drugs such as caffeine.
Why should the ruler drop test be repeated several times?
Repeating the test allows a mean average to be calculated, which reduces the effect of random error and makes the results more reliable.
True or False?
In a ruler drop test, you should change both the ruler used and the dominant hand between trials to increase the validity of the experiment.
False.
To produce valid results, you must use the same ruler and the participant's dominant hand every time. Only the independent variable should be changed.
If the effect of caffeine on reaction time is being investigated, participants should not consume any caffeine .......... the experiment begins.
If the effect of caffeine on reaction time is being investigated, participants should not consume any caffeine before the experiment begins.
Give one advantage of using a computer to measure reaction time instead of the ruler drop test.
A computer is more precise because it removes human error from measurements, and reaction times can be recorded in milliseconds rather than seconds.
What is a hormone?
A hormone is a chemical messenger secreted by a gland directly into the bloodstream, which carries it to a target organ where it produces an effect.
How do the effects of hormones compare to those of the nervous system?
Hormones act more slowly than nerve impulses but their effects last longer. Nerve impulses are fast but short-lived.
Complete the table of endocrine glands and their hormones.
Gland | Hormone |
|---|---|
Pancreas | |
Thyroid | |
Adrenal glands | |
Testes (males) |
Complete the table of endocrine glands and their hormones.
Gland | Hormone |
|---|---|
Pancreas | Insulin |
Thyroid | Thyroxine |
Adrenal glands | Adrenaline |
Testes (males) | Testosterone |
True or False?
The pituitary gland is sometimes called the 'master gland' because it produces several hormones that control other glands.
True.
The pituitary gland produces hormones such as FSH and LH, and plays a key role in controlling other glands in the endocrine system.
What is negative feedback in the context of homeostasis?
(Higher Tier Only)
Negative feedback is a mechanism where a change away from the normal level triggers a response that reverses the change, helping to maintain conditions within a narrow optimal range.
True or False?
Negative feedback causes a change in the body to become larger and larger over time.
(Higher Tier Only)
False.
Negative feedback does the opposite — it reverses a change and brings conditions back to normal. It stabilises the system rather than amplifying changes.
Which gland produces adrenaline, and when is it released?
(Higher Tier Only)
Adrenaline is produced by the adrenal glands (located above the kidneys) in response to fear or stress, preparing the body for 'flight or fight'.
Adrenaline increases .......... rate and boosts the delivery of .......... and glucose to the brain and muscles.
(Higher Tier Only)
Adrenaline increases heart rate and boosts the delivery of oxygen and glucose to the brain and muscles.
What are the two main roles of thyroxine in the body?
(Higher Tier Only)
Thyroxine stimulates the basal metabolic rate (BMR), controlling the speed of chemical reactions at rest. It also plays an important role in growth and development.
True or False?
If thyroxine levels rise too high, the pituitary gland releases more TSH to produce even more thyroxine.
(Higher Tier Only)
False.
When thyroxine levels are too high, the release of TSH from the pituitary gland is inhibited, so less thyroxine is released. This is an example of negative feedback.
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