Assessing Financial Position & Performance (AQA A Level Business): Flashcards

Exam code: 7132

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  • Define dividend.

Cards in this collection (67)

  • Define dividend.

    A dividend is the payment made to shareholders from a company's profits.

  • What are the two main ways shareholders benefit from owning shares?

    Shareholders benefit from dividend income and capital growth. Capital growth is an increase in the value of the shares themselves.

  • When a business makes a profit, it must decide how much to distribute to shareholders and how much to ____ within the business for reinvestment.

    When a business makes a profit, it must decide how much to distribute to shareholders and how much to retain within the business for reinvestment.

  • Define dividend per share.

    Dividend per share is the total dividends paid by a company divided by the number of shares in issue.

    Dividend per share = Total dividends paid ÷ Number of ordinary shares issued

  • True or False?

    A dividend per share of 27p tells an investor whether the shares are a good investment.

    False.

    Dividend per share has limited value on its own. It means little without knowing what the shares cost to buy or what rival companies are paying.

  • What is dividend per share most useful for tracking?

    It is most useful for tracking whether dividend payments are growing, stable or declining over time. A consistent or rising figure indicates financial confidence, while a lower one may warn of financial pressure.

  • Define dividend yield.

    Dividend yield is the dividend per share expressed as a percentage of the current share price.

    Dividend yield = Dividend per share ÷ Share price × 100

  • Why is dividend yield more useful than dividend per share for comparing investments?

    It measures the income return relative to the price paid for the shares. This means it can be compared directly with other companies' yields and interest rates on savings accounts.

  • True or False?

    Dividend yield can change even when the dividend a company pays stays the same.

    True.

    Dividend yield changes whenever the share price changes, even if the dividend itself stays the same.

  • Why might a high dividend yield be a warning sign rather than good news?

    A high yield may reflect a falling share price rather than a generous dividend. This could indicate that investors have concerns about the business.

  • How does a growth-focused business's dividend policy usually differ from that of a mature business?

    A growth-focused business keeps a large proportion of profit for reinvestment, so it pays lower dividends in the short term. A mature business with limited growth opportunities may pay out a higher proportion of profit as dividends.

  • A business facing cash flow difficulties may cut or suspend its dividend to prioritise ______ over shareholder income.

    A business facing cash flow difficulties may cut or suspend its dividend to prioritise solvency over shareholder income.

  • True or False?

    A business that cuts its dividend during an economic downturn is always showing fundamental weakness.

    False.

    Cutting the dividend in a downturn may be a sensible decision to preserve cash in difficult conditions. It is not necessarily a sign of fundamental weakness.

  • What four things should profits and profit margins be measured against?

    They should be measured against the business's objectives, the performance of competitors, the financial plan and the wider business environment.

  • True or False?

    A business pursuing aggressive growth may deliberately accept lower profit margins in the short term.

    True.

    A growth-focused business may accept lower margins in the short term because it is investing heavily in marketing, new staff or expansion.

  • Why might a business with social or environmental objectives accept a lower profit margin?

    The cost of ethical sourcing, fair wages or sustainable production is priced into its profit expectations.

  • What might a gross profit margin above the industry average suggest about a business?

    It suggests the business has greater pricing power, more efficient production or a better product mix than its rivals.

  • Why must profit margin comparisons with competitors be made carefully?

    Competitors may operate in different market segments, and larger rivals may benefit from economies of scale. Accounting policies, such as the treatment of depreciation, can also vary.

  • An _____ variance occurs when actual profit is lower than planned and requires investigation.

    An adverse variance occurs when actual profit is lower than planned and requires investigation.

  • If gross profit margin is on target but operating profit margin is below budget, where does the problem lie?

    The problem lies in overhead costs rather than production efficiency.

  • True or False?

    A low profit margin in a start-up business is always a cause for concern.

    False.

    Start-ups typically report lower margins because of the costs of building brand awareness, attracting customers and investing in equipment. This is not necessarily a concern if the trend is improving.

  • Some business ____ are inherently low-margin, such as supermarkets, while others, such as luxury goods and software, are inherently high-margin.

    Some business models are inherently low-margin, such as supermarkets, while others, such as luxury goods and software, are inherently high-margin.

  • Why should one-off events be stripped out when assessing a year's profit?

    Events such as a large asset sale, an exceptional legal cost or restructuring expenses will not recur. Removing them gives a clearer picture of business performance.

  • What does it mean if a business's revenue rises but all its profit margins fall?

    It means the business's costs have grown faster than its revenue.

  • True or False?

    A profit figure below last year's always shows that a business's performance has declined.

    False.

    If costs have risen across the whole industry, a lower profit figure could actually represent excellent management.

  • Define return on capital employed (RoCE).

    Return on capital employed (RoCE) measures how efficiently a business generates profit from the long-term capital invested in it.

  • True or False?

    A business whose RoCE is above the industry average has always met its objectives.

    False.

    If RoCE falls short of the business's own target, it is an adverse variance, even if the figure is above the industry average.

  • Why do capital-intensive industries usually have lower RoCE than asset-light businesses?

    They require far more capital to generate each pound of profit. Manufacturing, property and utilities are capital-intensive, while software and consulting are asset-light.

  • What might a falling RoCE despite growing profits indicate?

    It may indicate that capital employed is growing faster than operating profit. This can happen through acquisitions or new sites opening.

  • True or False?

    RoCE typically falls in the short term straight after a major investment in new machinery.

    True.

    Capital employed rises sharply after a major investment, so RoCE typically falls until the investment has had time to generate its full return.

  • Why should RoCE be compared with the cost of borrowing?

    If RoCE is lower than the interest rate paid on debt, the capital invested is not covering its financing costs. This is a serious concern regardless of what competitors achieve.

  • Define return on investment (RoI).

    Return on investment (RoI) evaluates the financial return generated by a specific investment decision, such as new equipment, a marketing campaign or a new location.

  • What is a minimum acceptable RoI?

    It is a threshold set before an investment is made, below which the investment would not be considered worthwhile.

  • Three new showrooms cost £1.8 million and generate a combined net return of £540,000. What is the RoI?

    The RoI is £540,000 ÷ £1,800,000 × 100 = 30%.

  • What can a business compare its RoI against if competitors' data is not publicly available?

    It can compare RoI against external benchmarks, such as the return available from a savings account.

  • True or False?

    A higher-than-forecast RoI always means an investment has performed exceptionally well.

    False.

    A higher-than-forecast RoI may mean the original projections were too conservative, or that market conditions were more favourable than expected.

  • An RoI calculation cannot capture ___________ benefits, such as improved product quality, better staff conditions or a stronger brand.

    An RoI calculation cannot capture non-financial benefits, such as improved product quality, better staff conditions or a stronger brand.

  • True or False?

    An RoI of 15% from a speculative new product launch is more valuable than the same return from a low-risk process improvement.

    False.

    A higher RoI is expected from riskier investments. The same 15% return from a well-established, low-risk process improvement is arguably more valuable.

  • How does opportunity cost affect the assessment of an RoI?

    The business must ask whether the investment was the best available use of the capital. An RoI of 10% may be acceptable, or it may mean a better opportunity was missed elsewhere.

  • Define cash flow.

    Cash flow is the movement of money into and out of a business over time.

  • True or False?

    Negative net cash flow always shows that a business is being poorly managed.

    False.

    A business focused on rapid expansion may deliberately accept periods of negative net cash flow as it invests ahead of revenue growth.

  • What does it suggest if competitors generate strong positive cash flow while one business consistently struggles?

    It suggests an internal problem, such as slower inventory turnover, poor credit control or higher fixed costs.

  • Why should a favourable variance against the cash flow forecast still be examined?

    It may reflect stronger sales or lower costs. However, it may also mean that planned investment has been delayed.

  • Seasonal businesses often have negative cash flow outside peak trading, which is manageable if they have planned for it with appropriate ______ or credit facilities.

    Seasonal businesses often have negative cash flow outside peak trading, which is manageable if they have planned for it with appropriate reserves or credit facilities.

  • Define liquidity.

    Liquidity measures a business's ability to meet its short-term obligations using its short-term assets.

  • What are the widely quoted benchmarks for the current ratio and the acid test ratio?

    The benchmark for the current ratio is 2:1 and for the acid test ratio is 1:1. These should be interpreted carefully rather than applied rigidly.

  • True or False?

    A current ratio well below 1:1 always means a business faces a liquidity crisis.

    False.

    A large supermarket can operate sustainably below 1:1. It collects cash from customers almost immediately but takes 30–60 days to pay suppliers.

  • What might a current ratio much higher than rivals' suggest?

    The business may be sitting on cash that could be used more productively. This suggests overly cautious financial management.

  • Manufacturers tend to show higher current ratios than _____ businesses, which may hold very little inventory.

    Manufacturers tend to show higher current ratios than service businesses, which may hold very little inventory.

  • Define gearing.

    Gearing measures the proportion of a business's capital that is funded by long-term debt.

  • Why do capital-intensive sectors, such as property and utilities, often operate with high gearing?

    The stability and predictability of their income streams makes debt more manageable.

  • Why might a business's gearing rise unexpectedly?

    The business may be borrowing more than planned, or it may have made losses that have reduced the value of its equity.

  • True or False?

    High gearing is significantly more dangerous when interest rates are high.

    True.

    A business comfortably repaying debt at 2% may face serious pressure if rates rise to 6%.

  • Define break-even output.

    The break-even output is the minimum level of sales a business must achieve to cover all of its costs.

  • Define margin of safety.

    The margin of safety is the difference between actual (or forecast) output and break-even output. It shows how far sales can fall before the business makes a loss.

  • Why might a business with a rapid growth objective accept a higher break-even point?

    It is likely to have invested heavily in premises and equipment to support expansion. It accepts greater financial risk in exchange for this investment.

  • What must a business do if its margin of safety is negative?

    Actual sales are below break-even, so the business must act urgently to reduce costs or increase revenue.

  • True or False?

    A business with a higher break-even point than its rivals is less able to compete on price.

    True.

    It is more exposed to falling demand and less able to compete on price without making a loss. Rivals that break even at lower output have a cost advantage.

  • Comparing break-even output with the output forecast in the business plan shows whether the plan is ____.

    Comparing break-even output with the output forecast in the business plan shows whether the plan is viable.

  • True or False?

    A start-up with a low margin of safety is likely to be failing.

    False.

    A low margin of safety is common in the early stages of trading, as fixed costs are incurred before revenue increases. It is not a problem provided the sales growth trend is positive.

  • Why is it acceptable for a seasonal business to fall below break-even in quieter months?

    This is normal and manageable provided peak-season profits are sufficient to cover off-season losses.

  • Define budget variance.

    A budget variance is the difference between a budgeted figure and the actual outcome.

  • Why might an adverse cost variance not be a cause for concern?

    It may reflect a deliberate strategic decision, such as spending more on marketing or quality than budgeted to pursue a growth objective.

  • True or False?

    A favourable revenue variance always shows that a business has performed exceptionally well.

    False.

    A favourable revenue variance may indicate that the original budget was too conservative, rather than that performance has been exceptional.

  • What does it suggest if all businesses in a sector face the same adverse variance?

    It suggests the variance reflects the business environment rather than poor management.

  • If the assumptions in the original budget were unrealistic, the variance reflects a ______ problem as much as a performance problem.

    If the assumptions in the original budget were unrealistic, the variance reflects a planning problem as much as a performance problem.

  • How does business size and complexity affect the assessment of budget variances?

    In large, complex organisations some variance is inevitable. The key is whether variances are within acceptable levels and whether the business can respond quickly to significant ones.

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